Nursing Elites

1. The physician tells the parents of a 2-year-old that the child probably has RSV. The parents ask how the diagnosis will be confirmed. How should the nurse respond?

• A. We will swab your child's nose and send the secretions for testing.
• B. There is no specific test for RSV. The diagnosis is based on symptoms.
• C. We will send a viral culture to an outside lab for testing.
• D. There is no specific test for RSV. The diagnosis is based on symptoms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. RSV is typically diagnosed by swabbing the nose and testing the secretions. This method helps confirm the presence of the respiratory syncytial virus. Choice B is incorrect because while symptoms are important in diagnosis, specific tests like swabbing for RSV do exist. Choice C is incorrect as sending a viral culture to an outside lab is not the primary method for diagnosing RSV. Choice D is a duplicate of choice B and is incorrect for the same reasons.

2. Which developmental milestone would the nurse expect an 11-month-old infant to have achieved?

• A. Sitting independently
• B. Turning a doorknob
• C. Building a tower of four cubes
• D. Walking independently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting independently. By 11 months, most infants can sit independently. This milestone usually precedes walking, which typically occurs closer to 12 months. Turning a doorknob and building a tower of four cubes involve more complex motor skills that are typically achieved later in development. Therefore, at 11 months, sitting independently is the milestone that the nurse would expect an infant to have achieved.

3. Urinary tract anomalies are frequently associated with what irregularities in fetal development?

• A. Myelomeningocele
• B. Cardiovascular anomalies
• C. Malformed or low-set ears
• D. Defects in lower extremities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Malformed or low-set ears are often associated with congenital urinary tract anomalies, as both the ears and kidneys develop around the same time during fetal growth. Myelomeningocele, cardiovascular anomalies, and lower extremity defects are less commonly associated with UT anomalies.

4. The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what?

• A. 2 to 3 years
• B. 4 to 5 years
• C. 6 to 7 years
• D. 8 to 9 years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The peak age for the onset of minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) is typically between 4 and 5 years old. MCNS is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children, particularly within this age range.

5. An important role of the nurse in ambulatory settings and schools is the identification of communicable diseases for treatment and the prevention of spread. What is an important component related to the first period of the contagiousness of disease?

• A. Source
• B. Causative agent
• C. Prodromal stage
• D. Constitutional symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The prodromal period is the interval between the early manifestations of the disease and the time when the overt clinical syndrome is evident. Most communicable diseases are contagious during this time. Identifying the prodromal stage is crucial for early intervention and preventing the spread of the disease. While the source and causative agent are important aspects of disease control, recognizing the early signs in the prodromal stage allows the nurse to take timely actions. Constitutional symptoms occur during the active disease phase, indicating that the child has already been contagious, and early intervention opportunities may have passed.

Similar Questions