the nurse has a 2 year old boy sit in a tailor position while palpating for the presence of the testes what is the rationale for this position the nurse has a 2 year old boy sit in a tailor position while palpating for the presence of the testes what is the rationale for this position
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Nursing Care of Children Final ATI

1. Why does the nurse have a 2-year-old boy sit in a “tailor” position while palpating for the presence of the testes?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The tailor position stretches the muscle responsible for the cremasteric reflex, preventing it from contracting and pulling the testes into the pelvic cavity. This position helps accurately palpate the testes. Choice B is incorrect because the position does not facilitate the palpation of undescended testes specifically. Choice C is incorrect as it does not relate to the rationale behind the tailor position. Choice D is incorrect as the reason for using the tailor position is not related to the child's need for privacy.

2. The organ systems responsible for integration and coordination are the nervous and endocrine systems.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is True. The nervous and endocrine systems are indeed responsible for integration and coordination in the body. The nervous system uses electrical impulses to send signals quickly, while the endocrine system uses hormones to send chemical messages more slowly. Together, they work to regulate various bodily functions and maintain homeostasis. The other choices are incorrect as the statement accurately describes the roles of the nervous and endocrine systems in integration and coordination.

3. A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is associated with a congenital intrinsic factor deficiency, leading to the impaired absorption of vitamin B12. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice A) is not directly related to intrinsic factor deficiency. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by defective iron uptake by developing erythrocytes and is not linked to intrinsic factor deficiency. Hemolytic anemia (Choice D) involves the premature destruction of red blood cells and is not specifically associated with intrinsic factor deficiency.

4. A client in the emergency department reports difficulty breathing. The nurse assesses the client’s appearance as depicted below: What action by the nurse is most important?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to assess the client's blood pressure and pulse. Difficulty breathing can be a sign of various conditions, including cardiac issues. Assessing blood pressure and pulse helps in determining the client's hemodynamic status and identifying any cardiovascular compromise. Option B is less crucial as attaching the client to a pulse oximeter may provide oxygen saturation levels but does not directly assess cardiac output. Option C is not the priority in this situation as the client's difficulty breathing is a more urgent concern. Option D is incorrect as urgent radiation therapy is not indicated based on the client's presentation.

5. The nurse is caring for a heart client on digoxin and notes a potassium level of 2.5. What is the appropriate priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When caring for a client on digoxin with a low potassium level, the priority nursing intervention is to check the digoxin level. Low potassium can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Checking the digoxin level will help determine if any adjustments to the medication regimen are needed to prevent potential harm. Choice A is incorrect as a potassium level of 2.5 is low, not normal. Choice B is not the priority as simply giving potassium may not address the underlying issue of potential digoxin toxicity. Choice D is not the initial action to take without assessing the digoxin level first.

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