Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider suspects the Somogyi effect in a 50-year-old patient whose 6:00 AM blood glucose is 230 mg/dL. Which action will the nurse teach the patient to take?

• A. Avoid snacking at bedtime.
• B. Increase the rapid-acting insulin dose.
• C. Check the blood glucose during the night.
• D. Administer a larger dose of long-acting insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Somogyi effect, also known as rebound hyperglycemia, occurs due to an excessive insulin dose at night, leading to hypoglycemia in the early morning hours. To address this, the nurse should instruct the patient to check their blood glucose during the night to determine if hypoglycemia is present, which triggers the rebound hyperglycemia. By monitoring blood glucose levels during the night, the patient can identify if adjustments are needed to prevent this phenomenon and maintain stable glucose levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding snacking at bedtime, increasing rapid-acting insulin dose, or administering a larger dose of long-acting insulin are not appropriate actions to manage the Somogyi effect. Checking blood glucose during the night is crucial to identify and prevent the rebound hyperglycemia characteristic of this phenomenon.

2. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse preceptor?

• A. Supervisor of all nursing staff
• B. Mentor and educator for new nurses
• C. Director of nursing services
• D. Coordinator of patient care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Mentor and educator for new nurses.' A nurse preceptor plays a crucial role in mentoring and educating new nurses. They provide guidance, support, and practical knowledge to help new nurses transition smoothly into their roles. While preceptors may have supervisory responsibilities during the orientation period, their primary focus is on supporting the professional development of new nurses, rather than supervising all nursing staff, directing nursing services, or coordinating patient care. Choice A is incorrect because a nurse preceptor does not supervise all nursing staff but focuses on new nurses. Choice C is incorrect as the role of a director of nursing services involves overall management and leadership of nursing services. Choice D is incorrect as a coordinator of patient care is responsible for organizing patient care activities, not specifically focused on mentoring new nurses.

3. Which of the following is a common characteristic of a high-performing healthcare team?

• A. Effective communication
• B. Shared leadership
• C. Collaborative decision making
• D. Hierarchical structure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Collaborative decision making is a key characteristic of a high-performing healthcare team because it involves team members working together to make decisions that lead to the best outcomes for patients. Effective communication is important in any team, but collaborative decision making goes beyond communication by involving team members in the decision-making process. Shared leadership is also crucial for a high-performing team, as it promotes equality and empowerment among team members. On the other hand, a hierarchical structure can hinder effective communication and teamwork by creating barriers between team members and limiting input from all team members, which is counterproductive to achieving optimal healthcare outcomes.

4. Recent polls have placed nursing as one of the most trusted professions because of which of the following?

• A. Nurses engage in lifelong learning.
• B. Nurses abide by a dress code.
• C. Nurses have the skills needed to care for diverse populations.
• D. Nurses must pass the NCLEX in order to obtain a license to practice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Recent polls have identified nursing as one of the most trusted professions due to nurses possessing the necessary skills to provide care for diverse populations. This includes understanding and addressing the unique needs of individuals from various backgrounds and cultures. Choice A is incorrect because while nurses do engage in lifelong learning, this is not the primary reason for their trustworthiness. Choice B is also incorrect as abiding by a dress code does not directly contribute to the trust placed in nurses. Choice D is incorrect because passing the NCLEX exam is a regulatory requirement for obtaining a license and does not solely determine the trustworthiness of nurses in the eyes of the public.

5. A 27-year-old patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a serum glucose level of 732 mg/dL and serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which action prescribed by the healthcare provider should the nurse take first?

• A. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor
• B. Administer IV potassium supplements
• C. Obtain urine glucose and ketone levels
• D. Start an insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the initial priority is to assess for any cardiac arrhythmias due to electrolyte imbalances. Since the patient has a low serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L, placing the patient on a cardiac monitor is crucial to monitor for any potential cardiac complications. Administering IV potassium supplements (Choice B) may be needed, but it is not the first action to take. Obtaining urine glucose and ketone levels (Choice C) and starting an insulin infusion (Choice D) are important interventions in managing DKA, but ensuring patient safety by monitoring for arrhythmias takes precedence.

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