the health care provider suspects the somogyi effect in a 50 year old patient whose 600 am blood glucose is 230 mgdl which action will the nurse teach
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023

1. The healthcare provider suspects the Somogyi effect in a 50-year-old patient whose 6:00 AM blood glucose is 230 mg/dL. Which action will the nurse teach the patient to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Somogyi effect, also known as rebound hyperglycemia, occurs due to an excessive insulin dose at night, leading to hypoglycemia in the early morning hours. To address this, the nurse should instruct the patient to check their blood glucose during the night to determine if hypoglycemia is present, which triggers the rebound hyperglycemia. By monitoring blood glucose levels during the night, the patient can identify if adjustments are needed to prevent this phenomenon and maintain stable glucose levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding snacking at bedtime, increasing rapid-acting insulin dose, or administering a larger dose of long-acting insulin are not appropriate actions to manage the Somogyi effect. Checking blood glucose during the night is crucial to identify and prevent the rebound hyperglycemia characteristic of this phenomenon.

2. There are several pitfalls that should be avoided when using social media of any type. For example, a nurse or student could be found guilty of libel in which of the following scenarios?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complaining about her nurse preceptor on social media, discussing the preceptor�s unprofessional characteristics, could be considered libel.

3. When should a critical pathway be revised?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A critical pathway should be revised when variances in the patient's progress indicate a new trend or deviation from the expected course of treatment. This allows healthcare providers to adjust the pathway to ensure optimal patient care and outcomes. Changes in the critical pathway are not typically driven by its length or external factors like team member retirements or client discharges. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is a better phrasing of the correct answer, emphasizing the importance of variances showing a new trend. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the patient's progress and treatment plan, making them incorrect.

4. What is the primary role of a nurse mentor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary role of a nurse mentor is to guide new nurses in their roles. This involves providing support, sharing knowledge and expertise, offering guidance for professional development, and assisting new nurses in adjusting to their roles and responsibilities. Option A, supervising nursing staff, is more aligned with a nurse manager's responsibilities rather than a mentor's. Option B, providing emotional support, is a part of the mentorship role but not the primary focus. Option D, enforcing policy compliance, is essential but not the primary role of a mentor, as mentoring focuses more on nurturing and developing new nurses.

5. According to Maslow's theory, which level of needs must be met first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, physiological needs are at the lowest level and must be satisfied first before an individual can progress to fulfilling higher-level needs. Physiological needs include basic requirements for survival such as food, water, shelter, and sleep. Esteem needs, safety needs, and self-actualization needs are higher-level needs that can only be addressed once physiological needs are adequately met. Therefore, the correct answer is D, physiological needs.

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