Nursing Elites

1. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) should avoid which type of food?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should avoid foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone specifically affects potassium levels, not sodium, calcium, or chloride.

2. What test measures the electrical activity of the heart and can detect heart rhythm problems?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. MRI
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG). An electrocardiogram is a test that measures the electrical activity of the heart and can detect irregularities in heart rhythm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a chest X-ray, MRI, and CT scan do not specifically measure the electrical activity of the heart or detect heart rhythm problems.

3. What is a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are blocked or delayed, leading to a slower or irregular heartbeat?

• A. Heart block
• B. Atrial fibrillation
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heart block is the correct answer. It is a condition where the electrical impulses in the heart are blocked or delayed, resulting in a slower or irregular heartbeat. This can lead to symptoms like dizziness, fainting, or other issues. Atrial fibrillation (B) is characterized by rapid, irregular heartbeats. Tachycardia (C) is a condition where the heart rate is too fast. Bradycardia (D) is the opposite of tachycardia, where the heart rate is too slow.

4. What condition involves a weakened and bulging aorta, the main artery in the body, potentially leading to rupture?

• A. Aortic aneurysm
• B. Arterial stenosis
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aortic aneurysm is a condition characterized by the weakening and bulging of the aorta, the body's main artery. If left untreated, this bulging may lead to a rupture, causing severe complications. Arterial stenosis refers to the narrowing of an artery, not the weakening and bulging seen in an aortic aneurysm. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage in the pulmonary artery, which is different from the weakening and bulging in an aortic aneurysm. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, not related to the condition described in the question.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Creatinine
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

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