ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who has a hemoglobin A1C of 12%
- B. 23-year-old with type 1 diabetes who has a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL
- C. 40-year-old who is pregnant and has an oral glucose tolerance test result of 202 mg/dL
- D. 50-year-old who uses exenatide (Byetta) and is complaining of acute abdominal pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL (hypoglycemia) needs immediate attention. Hypoglycemia is an emergency situation that requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse effects such as seizures or loss of consciousness. Assessing and managing this patient first is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening situations requiring urgent intervention like severe hypoglycemia does. While a high hemoglobin A1C level (choice A), an abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result (choice C), and acute abdominal pain (choice D) are important issues, they do not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life compared to severe hypoglycemia.
2. Which of the following is a recommendation for avoiding charges of negligence and false imprisonment for confused clients?
- A. Carefully assess and document client status.
- B. Ensure all patient information is secure and the nurse has logged out of the computer before leaving the computer station.
- C. Keep detailed notes while providing care to ensure accurate documentation later in the day.
- D. Discuss safety needs with clients.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Carefully assess and document client status.' When dealing with confused clients, it is crucial to assess their status carefully and document it accurately. This helps in avoiding charges of negligence and false imprisonment by ensuring that the client's condition is well-documented and appropriate care is provided. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on computer security rather than client care. Choice C is incorrect because it emphasizes detailed notes for accuracy but does not specifically address the confusion of clients. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions discussing safety needs but does not directly relate to avoiding charges of negligence and false imprisonment for confused clients.
3. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy in public health?
- A. Screening for diabetes
- B. Vaccination programs
- C. Emergency response planning
- D. Chronic disease management
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaccination programs are considered a primary prevention strategy in public health because they aim to prevent the occurrence of diseases before they occur. Screening for diabetes (choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy that aims to detect and treat the disease early. Emergency response planning (choice C) is more focused on preparedness and response rather than preventing the initial occurrence of health issues. Chronic disease management (choice D) involves treating and controlling diseases that have already developed, making it a tertiary prevention strategy rather than primary.
4. Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) working in the diabetic clinic?
- A. Measure the ankle-brachial index.
- B. Check for changes in skin pigmentation.
- C. Assess for unilateral or bilateral foot drop.
- D. Ask the patient about symptoms of depression.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Measure the ankle-brachial index. This task involves using a Doppler ultrasound device to assess blood flow, which can be safely delegated to UAP. Choices B, C, and D require a higher level of assessment and interpretation that should be performed by licensed nursing staff. Checking for changes in skin pigmentation (B) and assessing for foot drop (C) involve more complex assessments that require nursing judgment. Asking about symptoms of depression (D) involves a psychosocial assessment, which should be performed by licensed personnel qualified to address mental health concerns.
5. A diabetic patient who has reported burning foot pain at night receives a new prescription. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about amitriptyline (Elavil)?
- A. Amitriptyline decreases the depression caused by your foot pain.
- B. Amitriptyline helps prevent transmission of pain impulses to the brain.
- C. Amitriptyline corrects some of the blood vessel changes that cause pain.
- D. Amitriptyline improves sleep and reduces awareness of nighttime pain.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, which helps in reducing the transmission of pain impulses to the brain. Choice A is incorrect because amitriptyline primarily works on pain transmission rather than directly on depression. Choice C is inaccurate as amitriptyline's mechanism of action is not related to correcting blood vessel changes. Choice D is partially true as amitriptyline can improve sleep, but the primary mechanism related to pain relief is by preventing pain impulses from reaching the brain.
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