Nursing Elites

1. A typical budget takes time to prepare. What timetable should the nurse manager plan for the budgeting process?

• A. 9-12 months
• B. 3-6 months
• C. 1-2 months
• D. Over two years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3-6 months. The process of preparing a typical budget usually takes around 3-6 months. This allows enough time for gathering financial data, analyzing expenses, projecting revenues, and finalizing the budget. Choice A (9-12 months) is too long for a typical budgeting process in most settings. Choice C (1-2 months) is too short to adequately complete all the necessary steps in the budgeting process. Choice D (Over two years) is excessive and not practical for the timeline of a standard budget preparation.

2. What is the main focus of a risk management program in healthcare?

• A. To reduce hospital readmissions
• B. To manage financial resources
• C. To ensure compliance with healthcare regulations
• D. To improve clinical outcomes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The main focus of a risk management program in healthcare is to improve clinical outcomes. By identifying and mitigating risks, healthcare organizations aim to enhance patient safety, quality of care, and overall health outcomes. Option A is incorrect because reducing hospital readmissions is a specific goal within healthcare but not the primary focus of risk management. Option B is incorrect as managing financial resources, while important, is more aligned with financial management rather than risk management. Option C is incorrect as ensuring compliance with healthcare regulations is vital but falls under compliance management rather than the primary focus of risk management, which is to improve clinical outcomes.

3. The nurse has administered 4 oz of orange juice to an alert patient whose blood glucose was 62 mg/dL. Fifteen minutes later, the blood glucose is 67 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Give the patient 4 to 6 oz more orange juice.
• B. Administer the PRN glucagon (Glucagon) 1 mg IM.
• C. Have the patient eat some peanut butter with crackers.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider about the hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to give the patient 4 to 6 oz more orange juice. The patient's blood glucose has increased from 62 mg/dL to 67 mg/dL after consuming the initial 4 oz of orange juice, indicating that the treatment is effective. Providing additional orange juice will help further raise the blood glucose levels. Administering glucagon (Choice B) is not necessary as the patient's blood glucose is already rising. Having the patient eat peanut butter with crackers (Choice C) is a slower-acting option compared to orange juice. Notifying the healthcare provider about the hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the patient's blood glucose is improving.

4. Which of the following is used as an indirect estimate of voluntary absenteeism?

• A. Involuntary absenteeism
• B. Voluntary absenteeism
• C. Total time lost
• D. Absence frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Absence frequency.' Absence frequency is the total number of distinct absence periods, regardless of duration. It is used as an indirect estimate of voluntary absenteeism because it provides insights into the frequency of absences. Voluntary absenteeism refers to absences that are under the employee's control, while involuntary absenteeism is not under their control. Total time lost, on the other hand, represents the number of scheduled days that employees miss, which is different from absence frequency.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and is exhibiting signs of hemorrhagic shock. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who tells the nurse to continue to measure the client's vital signs every 15 min and to report back in 1 hour. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Document the surgeon's instructions in the client's medical record.
• B. Complete an incident report.
• C. Consult the charge nurse.
• D. Notify the nursing manager.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should notify the nursing manager next. The surgeon's instructions are related to the client's condition, and it is crucial to inform the nursing manager about the situation. Option A is incorrect because documenting the surgeon's instructions in the medical record is not the immediate next step. Option B is also incorrect as completing an incident report is not warranted in this situation. Option C is not the best choice as consulting the charge nurse may cause a delay in escalating the situation to higher management, which is necessary in cases of emergency like hemorrhagic shock.

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