a supervisor is restricting the flow of communication between staff this has resulted in the staff having two very opposite directions the supervisors
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1. A supervisor is restricting the flow of communication between staff. This has resulted in the staff having two very opposite directions. The supervisor's actions are known as which type of force?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restraining force. In this scenario, the supervisor's actions of restricting communication are creating opposing directions among the staff, which is impeding progress and change. Restraining forces work against change by hindering or restricting movement in the desired direction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. 'Opposing force' does not specifically address the hindrance caused by the supervisor's actions. 'Driving force' is a positive force that initiates and supports change, which is not the case here. 'Restrictive force' is not a commonly used term in the context of organizational behavior and change management.

2. What is the main focus of the Magnet Recognition Program?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The main focus of the Magnet Recognition Program is nursing excellence. While nurse satisfaction and patient outcomes are important aspects influenced by the program, the primary goal is to recognize and promote nursing excellence. Financial performance is not the main focus of this program.

3. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

4. Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.' Nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who are qualified to diagnose and treat medical conditions without direct supervision from a physician. Choice A is incorrect because NPs have the autonomy to provide care independently. Choice C is incorrect as NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect as specializing in a specific area of nursing practice refers to a different aspect of advanced nursing roles, such as becoming a clinical nurse specialist.

5. A nurse is considering employment at a long-term care facility that has a functional nursing delivery system. Knowing this, the nurse could expect that:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a functional nursing delivery system, tasks are divided among the staff based on their roles. One of these roles is medication administration, where one RN may pass medications for all clients on a unit. Option A is incorrect because coordinating care for a group of clients is more aligned with team nursing. Option C is incorrect as it describes total care nursing, not functional nursing. Option D is incorrect as it reflects team nursing with a mix of different roles sharing responsibility.

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