ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A nurse is developing a plan of care for an older adult who is at risk for falls. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
- A. Lock beds and wheelchairs when not in use
- B. Administer a sedative at bedtime
- C. Provide information about home safety checks
- D. Teach balance and strengthening exercises
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in the plan of care for an older adult at risk for falls is to lock beds and wheelchairs when not in use. This measure is crucial for preventing falls and ensuring patient safety in healthcare settings. Administering sedatives at bedtime (Choice B) is not recommended as it does not address the underlying risk factors for falls and may increase the risk of injury. Providing information about home safety checks (Choice C) is important for fall prevention in the home environment but is not directly related to healthcare settings. Teaching balance and strengthening exercises (Choice D) is beneficial for fall prevention but may not be suitable for all older adults at risk for falls, especially in acute care settings.
2. A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who can bear weight on one leg from the bed to a chair. After securing a safe environment, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Check for orthostatic hypotension
- B. Use a gait belt
- C. Position the chair on the strong side
- D. Ask for assistance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct next action for the nurse to take is to check for orthostatic hypotension. This step is crucial as it ensures the client's safety during the transfer process. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure that can occur when a person moves from a lying down position to a sitting or standing position. By checking for orthostatic hypotension before transferring the client, the nurse can prevent potential complications such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or falls. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect in this scenario as they do not address the immediate safety concern of assessing for orthostatic hypotension.
3. A nurse manager is asked to select clients for early discharge from the unit following a mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse manager recommend?
- A. A client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day
- B. A client whose discharge was cancelled the prior day because they developed respiratory distress
- C. A client who is 6 hr postoperative following an open cholecystectomy
- D. A client who is prescribed gastric lavage treatments to treat acute aspirin toxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse manager should recommend the client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day for early discharge following a mass casualty event. This client is stable and not in immediate need of hospital care. Choices B, C, and D involve clients who require ongoing monitoring and care due to recent developments or treatments, making them unsuitable for early discharge during a mass casualty event.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?
- A. PT of 12 seconds
- B. aPTT of 70 seconds
- C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
- D. INR of 1.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.
5. A school nurse is developing a teaching plan about testicular cancer for a group of clients. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Perform a testicular self-examination weekly.
- B. Do not palpate the epididymis when performing a testicular self-examination.
- C. Expect testicles to be uniform in consistency when performing a testicular self-examination.
- D. Perform a testicular self-examination after a cool shower.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because testicles should be uniform in consistency when performing a self-exam, and any lumps or abnormalities should be reported. Choice A is incorrect as testicular self-examinations should be performed monthly, not weekly. Choice B is incorrect because the epididymis should be included in the examination. Choice D is incorrect because a warm shower helps relax the scrotum, making the exam easier to perform.
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