ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.
2. A community health nurse is reviewing primary prevention strategies for West Nile virus with a group of clients in a rural health clinic. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid exposure to deer ticks.
- B. Eliminate areas of standing water.
- C. Use a respiratory mask when cleaning bird coops.
- D. Plan outdoor activities after dusk.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Eliminate areas of standing water.' This is an essential primary prevention strategy for West Nile virus as it helps prevent the breeding of mosquitoes that spread the virus. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding exposure to deer ticks is more relevant for Lyme disease, using a respiratory mask when cleaning bird coops is not a primary prevention strategy for West Nile virus, and planning outdoor activities after dusk does not directly address the prevention of West Nile virus transmission.
3. A patient is admitted with signs of stroke. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse anticipate as the priority?
- A. CT scan
- B. MRI
- C. X-ray
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CT scan is the priority diagnostic test to identify and confirm the location and severity of a stroke.
4. A client has a prescription for vancomycin 1g IV intermittent infusion over 30 minutes every 12 hours. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Start the infusion immediately
- B. Slow down the infusion rate
- C. Contact the provider for prescription clarification
- D. Check blood pressure during the infusion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider for prescription clarification. Administering vancomycin over less than 60 minutes can lead to infusion reactions like hypotension and flushing. Starting the infusion immediately (choice A) is incorrect as it goes against the prescribed rate. Slowing down the infusion rate (choice B) without provider approval can result in underdosing the medication. Checking blood pressure during the infusion (choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this situation.
5. What are the main differences between a stroke caused by ischemia and one caused by hemorrhage?
- A. Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain
- B. Bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured aneurysm
- C. Administering thrombolytics if within the treatment window
- D. Avoiding anticoagulants and preparing for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain." Ischemic stroke is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to reduced blood flow. Hemorrhagic stroke, on the other hand, is caused by bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured blood vessel. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Administering thrombolytics, avoiding anticoagulants, and preparing for surgery are specific management strategies that may apply to ischemic or hemorrhagic strokes but do not define the main differences between the two types of strokes.
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