Nursing Elites

1. During a physical assessment of adult clients, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

• A. Use the Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a client experiencing pain.
• B. Palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds.
• C. Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the client's arm.
• D. Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When performing a physical assessment, it is essential to palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent altering bowel sound results due to the pressure applied during palpation. Choice A is incorrect because the FLACC pain rating scale is typically used for nonverbal or pediatric clients, not adults. Choice C is incorrect because the bladder of the blood pressure cuff should surround about 80% of the client's arm circumference, not the bladder of the cuff itself. Choice D is incorrect because to obtain an apical heart rate, auscultation should be done at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, not at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.

2. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Disruptive conflict.' In disruptive conflict, the parties involved are engaged in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. In this scenario, the resident and the nurse are engaging in behaviors that disrupt their professional relationship by intentionally ignoring pages and making excessive retaliatory calls. Perceived conflict refers to a situation where one or more parties believe that a conflict exists, competitive conflict involves striving to achieve personal goals at the expense of others, and felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict situation.

3. What is the primary reason for conducting a performance appraisal?

• A. Providing constructive feedback.
• B. Imposing punishment.
• C. Identifying issues.
• D. Offering coaching.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for conducting a performance appraisal is to provide constructive feedback to employees. This feedback helps employees understand what is expected of them, how well they are performing, and areas where they can improve. Choice B (Imposing punishment) is incorrect because performance appraisals should focus on development rather than punishment. Choice C (Identifying issues) is not the primary reason but can be a secondary outcome of performance appraisals. Choice D (Offering coaching) is related to providing guidance and support, which is a part of the feedback process but not the primary reason for conducting a performance appraisal.

4. Which of the following statements about time management is true?

• A. Time management is not important in nursing
• B. Writing goals will increase stress
• C. Effective time management reduces stress
• D. Setting goals is a time waster

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Effective time management reduces stress. Proper time management allows nurses to prioritize tasks, allocate sufficient time for each activity, and reduce the feeling of being overwhelmed. This, in turn, helps in reducing stress levels and increasing productivity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Time management is crucial in nursing to ensure efficient patient care and task completion. Writing goals helps in providing direction and motivation, reducing stress rather than increasing it. Setting goals is not a time waster; it is a fundamental aspect of effective time management.

5. Which of the following should be included in a discussion of advance directives with new nurse graduates?

• A. According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.
• B. The advance directive designates an individual who will make financial decisions for the client if he or she is unable to do so.
• C. A living will designates who will make health-care decisions for an individual in the event the individual is unable or incompetent to make his or her own decisions.
• D. The advance directive designates a health-care surrogate who will make known the client�s wishes regarding medical treatment if the client is unable to do so.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: One function of the advance directive is to appoint a health-care surrogate who will make known the client�s wishes for medical treatment to the medical and nursing team if the client is unable to do so.

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