Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has gestational hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 1+ proteinuria
• B. Blood pressure 144/92 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate 22/min
• D. Urine output 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should report a urine output of 20 mL/hr. This finding can indicate decreased renal perfusion and possible development of preeclampsia, which is a severe complication of gestational hypertension. Inadequate urine output can suggest compromised kidney function and impaired maternal and fetal well-being. Options A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client with gestational hypertension and may not require immediate reporting to the provider.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Respiratory rate 50/min
• B. Blood glucose 30 mg/dL
• C. Blood pressure 60/40 mm Hg
• D. Heart rate 140/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL in a newborn is significantly low and indicates hypoglycemia, which can be dangerous in a newborn. Hypoglycemia in a newborn can lead to neurological issues and requires immediate attention. The other findings provided, such as a respiratory rate of 50/min, blood pressure of 60/40 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 140/min, are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by clinical signs of distress.

3. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was delivered 24 hours ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Caput succedaneum
• B. Jaundice
• C. Acrocyanosis
• D. Overlapping cranial sutures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Jaundice occurring within the first 24 hours of life is a sign of pathological jaundice and should be reported to the provider. Caput succedaneum, acrocyanosis, and overlapping cranial sutures are common findings in newborns and do not necessarily require immediate reporting unless they are severe or indicate other underlying issues.

4. A nurse is providing prenatal education to a client who is in the second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should expect to feel your baby move at 12 weeks.
• B. You will need to increase your calcium intake during pregnancy.
• C. You should avoid exercise during the second trimester.
• D. You will need to limit your intake of folic acid during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Calcium intake is crucial during pregnancy to support fetal bone development. The nurse should educate the client to increase their calcium intake. Choice A is incorrect because fetal movements are usually felt around 18-25 weeks, not at 12 weeks. Choice C is incorrect as exercise is generally encouraged during pregnancy, including the second trimester, as long as it is not high-impact or risky. Choice D is incorrect as folic acid intake is essential during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects, and pregnant individuals are usually advised to increase their folic acid intake.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has suspected placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Painless vaginal bleeding
• B. Severe abdominal pain
• C. Uterine contractions
• D. Increased fetal movement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Placenta previa typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding as the placenta is located over or near the cervical opening. This bleeding occurs because the placental vessels are stretched and bleed easily. Severe abdominal pain (choice B) is not a typical finding in placenta previa. Uterine contractions (choice C) are more characteristic of preterm labor rather than placenta previa. Increased fetal movement (choice D) is not a specific finding associated with placenta previa.

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