Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Deviation of the trachea
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Pleuritic pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.

2. When is the most appropriate time for obtaining a sputum specimen for culture?

• A. Early in the morning
• B. After the patient eats a light breakfast
• C. After aerosol therapy
• D. After chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining a sputum specimen early in the morning is the most appropriate time because secretions have accumulated overnight. This timing provides the best sample with the least contamination, leading to more accurate culture results and aiding in diagnosing respiratory infections effectively.

3. Which of the following measures is not recommended to prevent pressure ulcers?

• A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion
• B. Using a water or air mattress
• C. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
• D. Providing meticulous skin care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Massaging a reddened area can cause further tissue damage by increasing pressure on already compromised skin. The other options, such as using specialized mattresses, adhering to repositioning schedules, and maintaining good skin care, are all recommended strategies to prevent pressure ulcers by reducing pressure and friction on vulnerable areas of the skin.

4. Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?

• A. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen
• B. Urinary catheterization
• C. Nasogastric tube insertion
• D. Colostomy irrigation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Surgical asepsis, which involves maintaining a sterile field and preventing contamination in a surgical setting, is required for urinary catheterization as it involves entering a sterile body cavity. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen, nasogastric tube insertion, and colostomy irrigation do not always require surgical asepsis as they involve different levels of sterility and infection control measures.

5. For administering a cleansing enema, what is the common position typically used?

• A. Sims left lateral
• B. Dorsal Recumbent
• C. Supine
• D. Prone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct position for administering a cleansing enema is the Sims left lateral position. This position is preferred as it helps to facilitate the procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the flow of the enema solution. The individual lies on their left side with the right knee flexed towards the chest, which helps to promote retention of the enema solution and its distribution throughout the colon. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The dorsal recumbent position (Choice B) is commonly used for physical examinations of the abdomen and genitalia. The supine position (Choice C) involves lying flat on the back and is not ideal for administering enemas. The prone position (Choice D) is lying flat on the stomach and is not suitable for administering enemas.

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