Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What should the nurse administer first?

• A. 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously
• B. 50 mL of 50% dextrose solution intravenously
• C. 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
• D. 15-20 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate orally

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client experiencing hypoglycemia is administering 15-20 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate orally. If the client is conscious and able to swallow, providing quick-acting carbohydrates helps raise blood glucose levels rapidly and effectively. This approach is preferred over other options like administering insulin, dextrose solution intravenously, or glucagon, which are not the initial interventions for hypoglycemia.

2. A client who will undergo a bronchoscopy procedure with a rigid scope and general anesthesia will have their neck in which of the following positions?

• A. A flexed position
• B. An extended position
• C. A neutral position
• D. A hyperextended position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a bronchoscopy with a rigid scope and general anesthesia, the provider will typically place the client's neck in a hyperextended position to allow better visualization and access to the airways. This position helps to align the trachea for easier insertion of the scope.

3. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

4. After a thoracentesis, a healthcare provider assesses a client. Which assessment finding warrants immediate action?

• A. The client rates pain as 5/10 at the site of the procedure.
• B. A small amount of drainage is noted from the site.
• C. Pulse oximetry reads 93% on 2 liters of oxygen.
• D. The trachea is deviated toward the opposite side of the neck.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A deviated trachea indicates a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency. This condition can rapidly lead to respiratory failure and requires immediate intervention. The other assessment findings, such as pain level, mild drainage, and slightly decreased oxygen saturation, are within an expected range after a thoracentesis and do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life.

5. A client has a pleural chest tube. Which action should the nurse take to ensure safe use of this equipment?

• A. Never strip the tubing to maintain patency.
• B. Secure tubing junctions with tape to prevent accidental disconnections.
• C. Set wall suction at the level recommended by the device manufacturer.
• D. Keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system is interrupted.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure safe use of a pleural chest tube, the nurse should keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system becomes dislodged or is interrupted. Stripping the tubing should never be done to maintain patency. Tubing junctions should be secured with tape, not clamps. Wall suction should be set at the level recommended by the device manufacturer, not the provider.

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