Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving an IV infusion of an antibiotic. The client calls the nurse feeling uneasy due to congestion. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Elevate the head of the client's bed to 45 degrees
• B. Have another nurse call the Rapid Response Team
• C. Prepare to administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• D. Slow the rate of the IV infusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the client's symptoms of congestion and feeling uneasy may indicate an anaphylactic reaction, which can be life-threatening. The most appropriate action is to call the Rapid Response Team to provide immediate assistance and interventions. Elevating the head of the bed, administering diphenhydramine, or slowing the IV infusion rate are not the priority actions in the case of a potential severe allergic reaction. These interventions may delay necessary emergency care and potentially worsen the client's condition.

2. When obtaining a client’s vital signs, the nurse assesses a blood pressure of 134/88 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s best intervention?

• A. Call the healthcare provider and report the finding.
• B. Reassess the client’s blood pressure at the next follow-up appointment.
• C. Administer an additional antihypertensive medication to the client.
• D. Teach the client lifestyle modifications to decrease blood pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the client lifestyle modifications to decrease blood pressure. A blood pressure reading of 134/88 mm Hg falls within the prehypertension range. The initial approach to managing prehypertension involves lifestyle modifications such as dietary changes, exercise, and stress reduction techniques. Calling the healthcare provider without attempting non-pharmacological interventions first is premature. Reassessing blood pressure at the next follow-up appointment may delay necessary interventions. Administering additional antihypertensive medication is not indicated at this stage as lifestyle modifications are the first line of treatment for prehypertension.

3. The nurse teaches a client who is newly diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which instruction does the nurse include to minimize complications of this disease?

• A. "Rest is the best medicine at this time. Do not start an exercise program."?
• B. "You are a man; therefore, there is nothing you can do to minimize your risks."?
• C. "You should talk to your provider about medications to help you quit smoking."?
• D. "Decreasing the carbohydrates in your diet will help you lose weight."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to talk to their provider about medications to help quit smoking. Smoking is a major risk factor for coronary artery disease, and quitting smoking can significantly reduce the risk of complications. Choice A is incorrect because exercise is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease, but should be started gradually and under guidance. Choice B is incorrect and inappropriate as it undermines the client's ability to take control of their health. Choice D is incorrect because while a balanced diet is important, specifically targeting carbohydrates alone may not be the most effective or healthy approach for managing coronary artery disease.

4. While taking the history of an older adult client, which assessment finding alerts the nurse that the client needs further assessment for fluid or electrolyte imbalance?

• A. "I am often cold and need to wear a sweater."?
• B. "I seem to urinate more when I drink coffee."?
• C. "In the summer, I feel thirsty more often."?
• D. "My rings seem to be tighter this week."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'My rings seem to be tighter this week.' This assessment finding indicates possible fluid retention, which can be a sign of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in an older adult. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically point towards fluid or electrolyte imbalance. Feeling cold, increased urination with coffee consumption, and feeling thirsty in the summer are not direct indicators of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in this context.

5. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with hypertension. Which client outcome is indicative of effective hypertension management?

• A. Absence of pedal edema in the lower legs.
• B. Absence of complaints of sexual dysfunction.
• C. No indication of renal impairment.
• D. Blood pressure reading of 148/94 mm Hg.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'No indication of renal impairment.' Effective hypertension management aims to prevent complications such as renal impairment. Checking for signs of kidney issues, like abnormal renal function tests, is crucial in monitoring the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are not specific indicators of effective hypertension management. Pedal edema, sexual dysfunction, and a single blood pressure reading are important but do not solely determine the effectiveness of managing hypertension.

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