ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. What type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?
- A. High-fiber
- B. Low-residue
- C. Low-fat
- D. High-protein
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimize irritation to the digestive tract, allowing the inflamed diverticula to heal. High-fiber foods are usually avoided during flare-ups as they can exacerbate symptoms. Low-fat and high-protein diets are not specifically recommended for diverticulitis flare-ups. Therefore, option B is the correct choice.
2. For a patient on lithium therapy, which dietary recommendation is essential?
- A. Increase caffeine intake
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Increase protein intake
- D. Increase fiber intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase sodium intake. Maintaining consistent sodium levels is crucial for patients on lithium therapy to prevent fluctuations in drug levels. Increasing caffeine intake (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interfere with lithium levels. While protein intake (Choice C) is important, it is not the essential dietary recommendation for patients on lithium therapy. Similarly, increasing fiber intake (Choice D) is not a key recommendation for these patients.
3. In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?
- A. Secure a clean container
- B. Discard the container if the outside becomes dirty
- C. Rinse the client's mouth with Listerine before collection
- D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoons of sputum are needed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to secure a clean container before sputum collection. This is essential to prevent contamination of the specimen, ensuring accurate test results and avoiding the introduction of external particles or bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes dirty is not necessary; the cleanliness of the inside is crucial. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine before collection may introduce unwanted substances that can affect the test results. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum required can vary depending on the test, and specifying a specific amount without medical guidance is not appropriate.
4. What is the best position to measure the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema?
- A. Dorsal recumbent
- B. Sitting
- C. Standing
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When measuring the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema, the best position to ensure accurate and consistent measurements is the dorsal recumbent position. This position allows the legs to be comfortably positioned, with the individual lying on their back and legs extended. This facilitates accurate measurement of the circumference without the influence of gravity. Sitting and standing positions may not provide optimal conditions for accurate leg circumference measurements as they may not allow the legs to be fully extended. The supine position, although similar to dorsal recumbent, may not provide the same level of comfort and accuracy in leg circumference measurement for a client with bipedal edema.
5. How long is the Practical Nurse Course training program conducted in phases for?
- A. 46 weeks
- B. 18 months
- C. 6 weeks
- D. 52 weeks
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for a comprehensive training program that covers all necessary aspects of practical nursing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific length of time associated with the Practical Nurse Course.
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