ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. What type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?
- A. High-fiber
- B. Low-residue
- C. Low-fat
- D. High-protein
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimize irritation to the digestive tract, allowing the inflamed diverticula to heal. High-fiber foods are usually avoided during flare-ups as they can exacerbate symptoms. Low-fat and high-protein diets are not specifically recommended for diverticulitis flare-ups. Therefore, option B is the correct choice.
2. A client who is postpartum and diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?
- A. Yogurt and mozzarella
- B. Spinach and beef
- C. Fish and cottage cheese
- D. Turkey slices and milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach and beef. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, both essential for treating iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt and mozzarella (choice A) are not significant sources of iron. Fish and cottage cheese (choice C) do not provide as much iron as spinach and beef. Turkey slices and milk (choice D) are also not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef.
3. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?
- A. Potassium
- B. Calcium
- C. Iron
- D. Zinc
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. In renal failure, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc are not typically restricted in chronic renal failure unless there are specific individual circumstances, making them incorrect choices.
4. A client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics. The nurse should take which best action regarding the informed consent?
- A. Obtain a court order for the surgery
- B. Sign the informed consent on behalf of the client
- C. Send the client to surgery without the consent form being signed
- D. Obtain a telephone consent from a family member, with the consent being witnessed by two healthcare providers
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In situations where a client is unable to sign the consent form, obtaining a telephone consent from a family member witnessed by two healthcare providers is the appropriate action to ensure informed consent is obtained. Option A is not necessary and involves legal proceedings. Option B is not ethical as the nurse cannot sign the consent on behalf of the client. Option C is unsafe and violates the client's rights by proceeding without proper consent.
5. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Know what your soldiers are doing during duty hours'?
- A. Accountability
- B. Personal/professional development
- C. Individual training
- D. Military appearance/physical condition
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Accountability. Accountability involves knowing what individuals are doing during duty hours, ensuring they are responsible and answerable for their actions. Personal/professional development (choice B) refers to enhancing one's skills and knowledge, individual training (choice C) focuses on specific training needs, and military appearance/physical condition (choice D) pertains to the physical presentation and fitness of individuals, not directly related to knowing what they are doing during duty hours.
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