Nursing Elites

1. The nurse understands that which are characteristics of anthrax? Select all that apply.

• A. Cutaneous lesions become a black eschar, Flu-like symptoms are a sign of pulmonary anthrax
• B. Cutaneous lesions become a black eschar
• C. Gastrointestinal anthrax causes blood anthrax
• D. Flu-like symptoms are a sign of pulmonary anthrax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct characteristics of anthrax are that cutaneous lesions become a black eschar, and flu-like symptoms are typical of pulmonary anthrax. Choice B is incorrect as it only covers the cutaneous anthrax characteristic and does not include the flu-like symptoms of pulmonary anthrax. Choice C is incorrect as gastrointestinal anthrax does not cause 'blood anthrax,' and Choice D is incorrect as flu-like symptoms are not associated with gastrointestinal anthrax.

2. The healthcare provider is conducting a respiratory assessment and is determining respirations per minute. Which factor(s) generally affect the character of respirations? Select all that apply.

• A. Anxiety
• B. Exercise
• C. Smoking
• D. A, B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! Anxiety and exercise can significantly alter the character of respirations, increasing the rate and depth. Smoking, while harmful to the respiratory system in the long term, does not directly affect the character of respirations like anxiety and exercise do. Therefore, choices C (Smoking) is incorrect. The correct answer is D (A, B).

3. When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?

• A. At the client's back
• B. At the client's right side
• C. At the client's left side
• D. In front of a sitting client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, the nurse should position himself in front of a sitting client. This positioning allows for easier access to the neck area and better visualization of any swelling or abnormalities in the lymph nodes. Being in front of the client ensures proper alignment and comfort for both the nurse and the client during the assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because positioning at the client's back or sides would make it challenging to adequately palpate the neck area and assess for lymphadenopathy.

4. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:

• A. Physician and nurse
• B. Physician and pharmacist
• C. Nurse and clinical dietitian
• D. Clinical dietitian and pharmacist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clinical dietitians and pharmacists work together to manage drug-nutrient interactions. They have the expertise to understand how medications and nutrients can interact in the body, potentially affecting the effectiveness of treatment. Physicians and nurses may be involved in patient care, but when it comes to monitoring drug-nutrient interactions, the specialized knowledge of clinical dietitians and pharmacists is crucial. Nurses and physicians typically focus more on administering medications and managing overall patient care, rather than the specific interactions between drugs and nutrients.

5. Which of the following is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives additional training in providing care beyond basic first aid procedures?

• A. Area support squad leader
• B. ATLS specialist
• C. Tactical lifesaver
• D. Combat lifesaver

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Combat lifesaver.' A Combat Lifesaver is a nonmedical member of a unit who is trained in advanced first aid procedures, providing care beyond basic first aid. Choice A, 'Area support squad leader,' does not specifically refer to someone trained in providing advanced care. Choice B, 'ATLS specialist,' refers to someone trained in Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), which is beyond the scope of the question. Choice C, 'Tactical lifesaver,' is not a recognized term for the role described in the question.

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