ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. The HCP orders cultures of the urethral urine, bladder urine, and prostatic fluid. Which instructions would the nurse teach to achieve the first two (2) specimens?
- A. Collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another
- B. Collect three (3) early morning, clean voided urine specimens
- C. Collect the specimens after the HCP massages the prostate
- D. Collect a routine urine specimen for analysis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another. This method allows for accurate cultures of urethral and bladder urine. Choice B is incorrect because it does not specify the correct method for collecting urethral and bladder urine separately. Choice C is incorrect because prostatic fluid is a separate specimen that does not require prostatic massage for collection. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests collecting a routine urine specimen, which does not fulfill the HCP's orders for specific cultures.
2. A patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant. What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Elevated blood glucose
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Signs of bleeding
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct! When a patient is prescribed an oral anticoagulant, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants are medications that prevent blood clot formation but can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stool, and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts is essential. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because oral anticoagulants do not typically affect blood glucose levels, blood pressure, or appetite.
3. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?
- A. High-protein
- B. High-carbohydrate
- C. Low-protein
- D. Low-fat
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a patient with a history of liver disease, a low-fat diet is most appropriate. Liver disease can impair fat metabolism, leading to fat accumulation in the liver cells and worsening the condition. A low-fat diet helps reduce stress on the liver and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein diets may not be suitable for individuals with liver disease as they can increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. High-carbohydrate diets may lead to insulin resistance and fat accumulation in the liver. While protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, a balanced intake of high-quality protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health, making a low-protein diet not the most appropriate choice for all patients with liver disease.
4. People who use monoamine oxidase inhibitors for the treatment of depression need to avoid foods high in:
- A. Folate
- B. Tyramine
- C. Potassium
- D. Vitamin K
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tyramine. When individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) consume foods high in tyramine, it can lead to a potentially dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis. Foods high in tyramine include aged cheeses, cured meats, and certain fermented foods. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Folate, potassium, and vitamin K are not typically contraindicated with the use of MAOIs.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. What clinical finding does the nurse expect the client to exhibit?
- A. Crying
- B. Self-mutilation
- C. Immobile posturing
- D. Repetitive activities
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, clients commonly exhibit immobile posturing, where they may maintain a fixed position for extended periods. This could include holding rigid poses or remaining motionless. Choice A, 'Crying,' is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Choice B, 'Self-mutilation,' refers to a different behavior seen in some mental health conditions but is not a characteristic feature of catatonic schizophrenia. Choice D, 'Repetitive activities,' does not align with the typical presentation of catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by motor abnormalities such as immobility rather than engaging in purposeful repetitive movements.
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