ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. Why are hospital patients at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions than they used to be?
- A. Hospitalized patients are more acutely ill
- B. Hospital routines interfere with the correct timing of medications
- C. Drugs used today are more toxic and have more side effects
- D. Responsibility for monitoring this is shared by various members of the healthcare team
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hospitalized patients are at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions because they are more acutely ill, often having multiple conditions and treatments that increase the risk of such interactions. Choice B is incorrect as hospital routines interfering with medication timing are not directly related to drug-nutrient interactions. Choice C is incorrect as the toxicity and side effects of drugs do not necessarily relate to interactions with nutrients. Choice D is incorrect as shared responsibility for monitoring does not directly contribute to the increased risk of drug-nutrient interactions in hospitalized patients.
2. A client who _____ diet requires _____ amounts of vitamin C.
- A. Follows a vegan diet
- B. Smokes cigarettes
- C. Follows a ketogenic diet
- D. Is lactose intolerant
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients who smoke require more vitamin C due to increased oxidative stress and depletion of vitamin C. Smoking leads to higher levels of oxidative stress in the body, which in turn increases the utilization of vitamin C to counteract the damage caused by free radicals. Choices A, C, and D do not directly impact the body's need for vitamin C as smoking does.
3. The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Call a code immediately
- B. Assess the client for a pulse
- C. Begin chest compressions
- D. Continue to monitor the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for a pulse. In ventricular tachycardia, the priority is to determine if the client has a pulse. If there is no pulse, immediate initiation of CPR with chest compressions is required. Calling a code or continuing to monitor the client can delay life-saving interventions. Therefore, assessing for a pulse is the most crucial step in managing ventricular tachycardia.
4. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
- A. Increasing calcium intake
- B. Increasing phosphorus intake
- C. Decreasing calcium intake
- D. Administering phosphate binders
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.
5. Which of the following is a potential side effect associated with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?
- A. Stomach irritation and bleeding
- B. Stomatitis and esophagitis
- C. Impaired folate absorption
- D. Increased potassium excretion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stomach irritation and bleeding. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause stomach irritation and bleeding due to their effects on gastric mucosa. Stomatitis and esophagitis (Choice B) are not typically associated with NSAID use. While NSAIDs may affect renal function, leading to fluid retention and edema, they do not directly cause increased potassium excretion (Choice D). Impaired folate absorption (Choice C) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs.
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