Free HESI LPN Mental Health Nursing practice for HESI Mental Health (HESI LPN). Answer 51 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress
During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.
A client with bipolar disorder is being treated with lithium. The nurse should monitor the client for which early sign of lithium toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Diarrhea is an early sign of lithium toxicity. When a client being treated with lithium presents with diarrhea, it can indicate the beginning of lithium toxicity. Monitoring for this symptom is crucial as it can progress to more severe toxicity if not addressed promptly. Tremors (choice B) are more commonly associated with the therapeutic effects of lithium rather than toxicity. Polyuria (choice C) is a common side effect of lithium, but it is not typically an early sign of toxicity. Blurred vision (choice D) is not a common early sign of lithium toxicity. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
A 35-year-old male client on the psychiatric unit of a general hospital believes that someone is trying to poison him. The nurse understands that a client's delusions are most likely related to his
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Psychotic clients often experience delusions due to difficulties with trust and low self-esteem (C). In this case, the client's belief that someone is trying to poison him is likely a manifestation of his underlying issues with trust and self-worth. Building trust and promoting positive self-esteem are essential in caring for such clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because delusions are not primarily related to early childhood experiences involving authority issues, anger about hospitalization, or phobic fear of food. These factors do not directly contribute to the development of delusions in psychotic clients.
On admission assessment, the nurse is obtaining subjective data about a client's sexual and reproductive status. The client states, 'I don't want to discuss this; it's private and personal.' Which response by the LVN/LPN is the most therapeutic?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is D. Respecting the client's privacy while acknowledging the difficulty of the situation and explaining the professional obligation to maintain confidentiality is the most therapeutic approach. This response shows empathy, understanding, and a commitment to confidentiality, which can help build trust and encourage the client to open up. Choices A, B, and C do not effectively address the client's concerns or emphasize the importance of confidentiality in a sensitive manner, making them less therapeutic responses in this situation.
The parents of a 14-year-old boy bring their son to the hospital. He is lethargic but responsive. The mother states, 'I think he took some of my pain pills.' During the initial assessment of the teenager, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a situation where a teenager is brought to the hospital after possibly ingesting pills, the most crucial information for the nurse to obtain from the parents is whether the teenager might have taken any other drugs (C). This knowledge is vital for guiding further treatment, such as administering antagonists, making it the top priority. While information about depression (A) and previous drug overdoses (B) is valuable for treatment planning, it is not as critical as knowing all substances taken. Asking about the teenager's desire to quit taking drugs (D) is not appropriate during the acute management of a drug overdose and does not take precedence over determining what other substances might have been ingested.
A LPN/LVN is performing a follow-up teaching session with a client discharged 1 month ago. The client is taking fluoxetine (Prozac). What information would be important for the nurse to obtain during this client visit regarding the side effects of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Gastrointestinal dysfunctions.' Fluoxetine commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, diarrhea, or constipation. These symptoms can significantly impact the client's quality of life and adherence to the medication regimen. Monitoring gastrointestinal issues is crucial for the nurse to ensure the client's well-being and optimize treatment outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cardiovascular symptoms, problems with mouth dryness, and problems with excessive sweating are not typically associated with fluoxetine use and are less likely to be a focus of concern during this client visit.
A nurse determines that the wife of an alcoholic client is benefitting from attending an Al-Anon group when the nurse hears the wife say:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is the correct answer as the statement indicates the wife understands that her husband's behavior is not her fault and is benefitting from the group support. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests self-blame rather than recognizing the husband's responsibility. Choice C is incorrect as the benefit is related to emotional support and understanding, not just getting away from the husband. Choice D is incorrect as tolerating destructive behaviors is not a healthy outcome of attending support groups.
The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client with schizophrenia who plans to live in a group home. Which statement is most indicative of the need for careful follow-up after discharge?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. The statement 'Only my belief in God can help me' suggests a reliance on spiritual intervention over medical treatment, raising concerns about potential non-compliance. This indicates the need for close follow-up to ensure the client's well-being and adherence to the prescribed treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address potential issues related to treatment compliance or the need for follow-up care after discharge.
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing distressful thoughts secondary to paranoia. Which intervention(s) should the LPN/LVN include in the plan of care? Select one intervention that does not apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing distressful thoughts secondary to paranoia is to avoid laughing when near the client. This is important as laughter can be misinterpreted and exacerbate the client's paranoia. Whispering when communicating near the client is not an appropriate intervention as it may lead the client to think secretive or negative information is being shared about them, further fueling their paranoia. Increasing socialization among peers can help provide support and reduce feelings of isolation, while having the client sign a written release of information form is not directly related to managing paranoia and distressful thoughts.
A child is brought to the emergency room with a broken arm. Because of other injuries, the nurse suspects the child may be a victim of abuse. When the nurse tries to give the child an injection, the child's mother becomes very loud and shouts, 'I won't leave my son! Don't you touch him! You'll hurt my child!' What is the best interpretation of the mother's statements? The mother is
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is (C) projecting her feelings onto the nurse. The mother's behavior suggests that she is attributing her own actions or feelings to the nurse, which is a form of projection. Option (A) regressing to an earlier behavior pattern is not the best fit in this context. Option (B) sublimating her anger is not applicable based on the given scenario. Option (D) suppressing her fear cannot be inferred from the provided information.
A client who has just been sexually assaulted is calm and quiet. The nurse analyzes this behavior as indicating which defense mechanism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Denial. In this situation, the client's calm and quiet demeanor after a traumatic event like sexual assault may indicate denial, a defense mechanism where the individual refuses to acknowledge the reality of the distressing event. Choice B, Projection, involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasoning is used to justify behaviors or feelings. Choice D, Intellectualization, is a defense mechanism where excessive reasoning or logic is used to avoid uncomfortable emotions.
A young adult male client, diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia, believes that the world is trying to poison him. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia who believes in paranoid delusions is to ask one nurse to spend time with the client daily. Establishing a trusting relationship with a consistent caregiver can help reduce anxiety and foster a sense of security. Choice A is incorrect because directly challenging the client's beliefs may increase distress. Choice C might overwhelm the client with paranoia in a group setting. Choice D does not address the need for a trusting relationship with a specific caregiver.
A client with a history of bipolar disorder presents to the emergency department with symptoms of mania. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering prescribed medication to manage symptoms is the priority intervention for a client with symptoms of mania. During a manic episode, the client may be at risk of harm to self or others due to impulsivity and poor judgment. Medication helps stabilize the client, reduce manic symptoms, and prevent further escalation. Providing a calm environment (choice B) is important but not the priority when the client's safety is at risk. Encouraging expression of feelings (choice C) and reinforcing medication adherence (choice D) are valuable aspects of care but addressing the acute symptoms of mania takes precedence to ensure the client's immediate safety and well-being.
Based on non-compliance with the medication regimen, an adult client with a medical diagnosis of substance abuse and schizophrenia was recently switched from oral fluphenazine HCl (Prolixin) to IM fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate). What is most important to teach the client and family about this change in medication regimen?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Teaching about the effects of alcohol and drug interaction is crucial to prevent adverse reactions, especially with the long-acting injectable form of fluphenazine. Understanding how alcohol and drugs can interact with the medication will help the client and family to ensure medication effectiveness and avoid potential harmful effects. Choices A, B, and D are not the most important to teach in this scenario. While knowing the signs and symptoms of extrapyramidal effects (EPS) is important, understanding the effects of alcohol and drug interaction is more critical in this specific situation. Information about substance abuse and schizophrenia, as well as the availability of support groups, are essential aspects of care but are not the primary focus when switching to a long-acting injectable medication due to non-compliance.
An LPN/LVN is caring for a suicidal client. The appropriate nursing intervention in dealing with this client is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a suicidal client, providing authority, taking action, and encouraging the client's participation in their care are essential. Choice A is incorrect as it may not be sufficient for the critical situation of a suicidal client. Choice B, while offering hope, may not address the immediate risk of harm. Choice C's attitude of detachment and confrontation can be counterproductive in establishing trust and rapport with the client. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to provide authority, take action to ensure safety, and involve the client in the care process.
What is the most therapeutic nursing response for a client with borderline personality disorder who engages in self-mutilating behavior?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most therapeutic nursing response for a client with borderline personality disorder engaging in self-mutilating behavior is to discuss what the client was feeling before self-harming. This approach helps in exploring the underlying triggers and emotions that lead to self-harm. Option A is directive and may come across as judgmental rather than empathetic. Option C can lead to feelings of betrayal and breach of trust. Option D is a closed-ended question that may not facilitate open communication or exploration of emotions.
A client with alcohol use disorder is admitted for detoxification. The nurse should monitor for which early sign of alcohol withdrawal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tremors are an early sign of alcohol withdrawal. They are caused by hyperactivity of the autonomic nervous system and are a common symptom during the early stages of withdrawal. Monitoring tremors is crucial as they can progress to more severe symptoms if not managed effectively. Seizures (Choice A) typically occur later in the withdrawal process and are a more severe symptom. Visual hallucinations (Choice B) usually manifest after tremors and are considered a mid-stage symptom. Delirium tremens (Choice D) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that typically occurs 2-3 days after the last drink, characterized by confusion, disorientation, and severe autonomic hyperactivity.
A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. Dystonia can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone, leading to involuntary muscle contractions and abnormal postures. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat dystonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because thioridazine is not the appropriate medication in this case, a hot pack would not address the underlying issue of dystonia, and occupational therapy is not the primary intervention for addressing acute dystonic reactions.
What are neurotransmitters?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Neurotransmitters are chemicals in the brain that act as messengers between neurons, influencing various psychological functions. Choice A correctly defines neurotransmitters by stating that they are chemical messengers that cause brain cells to turn on or off. This is the function of neurotransmitters in transmitting signals between neurons. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe neurotransmitters and their role in the brain.
The nurse is using the CAGE questionnaire as a screening tool for a client who is seeking help because his wife said he had a drinking problem. What information should the nurse explore in depth with the client based on this screening tool?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The CAGE questionnaire is used to identify problematic drinking behaviors. Choice B is correct because it includes key aspects that the nurse should explore further with the client. 'Efforts to cut down' can indicate acknowledgment of excessive drinking, 'guilt' reflects emotional distress related to drinking, and 'drinking as an 'Eye-opener'' suggests potential dependency. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the essential elements assessed by the CAGE questionnaire and may not provide relevant information for further evaluation of the client's drinking habits.
In the described scenario, a manic client threatens a nurse with physical violence after being told they cannot have a stripper perform. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, where the manic client becomes verbally abusive and threatens physical violence, the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to escort the client to her room with assistance. This action helps ensure the safety of both the client and the nurse, while also providing a controlled environment that can help de-escalate the situation. Choices A and B do not address the immediate safety concerns presented by the client's behavior. Choice D, revoking smoking privileges, is not directly related to the client's current behavior and does not address the threat of violence.
A client with bipolar disorder, manic phase, is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which meal is most appropriate for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A chicken salad sandwich (B) is the most appropriate choice as it is easy to eat on the go, which is important for a client in the manic phase who may have difficulty sitting still for a meal. Spaghetti and meatballs (A) and steak and potatoes (C) require more time and effort to eat, which may be challenging for a client experiencing mania. While hamburger and fries (D) could be an option, a chicken salad sandwich is a healthier and more manageable choice, considering the client's potential hyperactive state.
Within several days of hospitalization, a client is repeatedly washing the top of the same table. Which initial intervention is best for the nurse to implement to help the client cope with anxiety related to this behavior?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Initially, the nurse should allow time for the ritualistic behavior (C) to prevent anxiety. Administering an antianxiety medication (A) may help reduce the client's anxiety temporarily but will not address the underlying issue of ineffective coping mechanisms leading to the behavior. While assisting the client in identifying triggers (B) is important for long-term therapy, the immediate focus should be on managing the behavior. Teaching relaxation and thought-stopping techniques (D) is beneficial but might be more effective once the client is more stable and receptive to learning new coping strategies.
The nurse documents that a male client with paranoid schizophrenia is delusional. Which statement by the client confirms this assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Believing that the nurse is trying to poison him with pills is a clear indication of delusional paranoia, a common symptom in paranoid schizophrenia. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to paranoid delusions and are more indicative of hallucinations or other forms of delusions not specific to paranoia.
The client with schizophrenia believes the news commentator is her lover and speaks to her. What is the best response for the nurse to make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to ask the client what she believes the news commentator said, as it helps the nurse assess the client's perception and delve into her delusions without being confrontational. Choice B is not helpful in addressing the client's delusions. Choice C jumps to conclusions about potential harm without assessing the client's beliefs. Choice D is dismissive and does not address the client's reality.
A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a medical diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. During the admission procedure, the client looks up and states, 'No, it's not MY fault. You can't blame me. I didn't kill him, you did.' What action is best for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing (C). Further assessment is needed to understand the nature of the client's delusions and hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on reassuring the client about his fear, which is not addressing the underlying issue of the delusional statement. Choice B is incorrect as it argues with the client's delusion and offers false reassurance, which is not therapeutic. Choice D is incorrect as ignoring the behavior and making no response disregards the client's needs for assessment and support.
A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates her mannerisms. Which defense mechanism does the nurse recognize in this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Identification is the correct answer. It is a defense mechanism where an individual unconsciously models themselves after someone they admire or feel close to. In this scenario, the client is imitating the nurse's mannerisms, indicating identification. Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Introjection is the internalization of external attitudes or voices, while repression involves suppressing unwanted thoughts or desires.
A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.
A male client with delirium becomes disoriented and confused in his room at night. The best initial nursing intervention is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best initial nursing intervention for a male client with delirium who becomes disoriented and confused in his room at night is to use an indirect light source and turn off the television. This approach helps to reduce stimulation and confusion, aiding in the client's orientation and comfort. Moving the client next to the nurse's station (Choice A) may not address the root cause of disorientation and could disrupt the client's routine. Keeping the television and a soft light on (Choice C) may further contribute to the client's confusion. Playing soft music and maintaining a well-lit room (Choice D) may not be as effective in reducing stimulation and promoting orientation as using an indirect light source and turning off the television.
An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.
A female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is describing her obsessions and compulsions and asks the nurse why these make her feel safer. What information should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? (select one that does not apply.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Obsessions do not cause compulsions; rather, obsessions are intrusive, unwanted thoughts, images, or urges that trigger intensely distressing feelings, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rules that must be applied rigidly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because compulsions are behaviors or mental acts aimed at reducing distress or preventing a dreaded event or situation. Choice B is incorrect because while anxiety is often a significant component of OCD, it is not the only reason for the disorder. Choice D is incorrect because obsessive thoughts are not solely linked to levels of neurochemicals but are more complex and multifactorial.
The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.
When caring for a client who has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be especially cautious about which of the following client behaviors?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Violent behavior.' When a client has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be particularly cautious about the manifestation of violent behavior. PCP overdose can lead to aggressive and unpredictable actions, posing a significant risk to both the client and healthcare providers. Visual hallucinations (choice A), bizarre behavior (choice C), and loud screaming (choice D) can also occur with PCP overdose, but the primary concern should be the potential for violent behavior, making it the most critical behavior to monitor and manage.
An older homeless client visits the psychiatric clinic to obtain a prescription renewal for alprazolam (Xanax). During the health assessment, the client complains of chest pain. Which action should the RN take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Determining if Xanax was taken recently is crucial as it helps assess whether the chest pain is related to medication use or another issue, guiding appropriate immediate care. This action can provide essential information to address the client's current complaint effectively. Referring the client to the cardiology unit (Choice A) may be premature without assessing the Xanax use first. While obtaining the client's blood pressure (Choice B) is important, it is not the priority when the client presents with chest pain and a history of taking Xanax. Assessing the client for substance abuse (Choice C) is also important but is secondary to first determining the potential link between Xanax and the chest pain.
A male employee who is assessed weekly in the employee clinic for blood pressure because of a history of hypertension tells the nurse that he is so upset with one of his co-workers that he would like to shoot him. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Determining if the client has access to a weapon is critical for immediate safety and to prevent potential harm.
A client sought counseling after trying to rescue a neighbor involved in a house fire. Despite the client's efforts, the neighbor died. Which action does the nurse engage in with the client during the working phase of the nurse-client relationship?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the working phase of the nurse-client relationship, it is crucial for the nurse to inquire about and examine the client's feelings that may hinder adaptive coping. This helps the client process the traumatic event, explore their emotional responses, and identify any barriers to moving forward effectively. Exploring the client's ability to function (Choice A) may be more relevant in the assessment phase, while exploring the client's potential for self-harm (Choice B) is important but may not be the primary focus at this stage. Inquiring about the client's perception of the neighbor's death (Choice C) is valuable, but addressing feelings blocking adaptive coping is essential for therapeutic progress.
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours each day washing their hands. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate initially?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Initially, it is most appropriate to allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety (A). For clients with OCD, abruptly stopping compulsive behaviors can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Setting strict limits (B) may exacerbate anxiety at first. Distraction with other activities (C) may not address the underlying issue effectively. While support groups (D) can be beneficial, they are typically introduced after establishing trust and gradually working on reducing compulsive behaviors.
The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with a mental illness. The client asks, 'Will I be able to live a normal life?' What is the best response for the nurse to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best response for the nurse is to provide the client with hope while acknowledging the importance of their treatment and choices. Choice C addresses the client's concern by highlighting the impact of their treatment and personal choices on their future. It encourages personal responsibility and active participation in their recovery. Choices A and B may sound reassuring, but they do not empower the client to take an active role in their well-being. Choice D, while promoting individuality, does not directly address the client's question about living a normal life after a mental illness diagnosis.
An anxious client expressing a fear of people and open places is admitted to the psychiatric unit. What is the most effective way for the nurse to assist this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most effective way to assist a client with a fear of people and open places is through gradual desensitization by controlled exposure to the situation which is feared (D). This method helps the client confront their fears in a safe and supportive manner, allowing them to gradually build confidence and reduce anxiety. Planning an outing within the second week of admission (A) may be too soon and overwhelming for the client. Distracting the client whenever they express discomfort (B) does not address the underlying issue and may promote denial. Confronting the client's fears and discussing possible causes (C) could be too aggressive initially and may not be well-tolerated by the client.
A nurse working in a psychiatric unit is assessing a client who appears to be responding to internal stimuli. The client is laughing and talking to himself. What is the nurse's best initial response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Approaching the client and asking if he is hearing voices is the best initial response by the nurse. This action can help assess the situation and determine if the client is experiencing hallucinations that may require immediate intervention. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring the behavior could lead to missing important signs of distress or potential risks. Choice C may not address the immediate concern of assessing for hallucinations. Choice D is also not ideal as observing from a distance may not provide the necessary information for immediate assessment and intervention.
A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.
A moderately depressed client who was hospitalized 2 days ago suddenly begins smiling and reporting that the crisis is over. The client says to a nurse, 'I'm finally cured.' The LPN/LVN interprets this behavior as a cue to modify the treatment plan by:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A sudden improvement in mood and declaring being cured can be warning signs of a decision to attempt suicide. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to increase the level of suicide precautions to ensure the safety of the client. This can involve closer monitoring and restriction of items that could be harmful. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the potential risk of suicide that may be present with the sudden change in behavior.
During initial assessment of the teenager, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. It's crucial to determine if the teenager might have taken other substances besides the pain pills mentioned by the mother. This information is vital for effective treatment because knowing the full scope of substances involved helps in managing potential interactions, side effects, and the overall condition of the patient. Options A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate assessment compared to knowing if the teenager has ingested any other drugs.
An 86-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease is wandering the busy halls of the extended care facility and asks the nurse, 'Where should I stand for the parade?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
(C) is the best response as it redirects the client to a safer, familiar place. (A) is dismissive and does not address the client's needs directly. (B) labels the behavior, which may increase the client's anxiety. (D) is scolding and may not be helpful in the situation.
A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates the nurse's mannerisms. The nurse knows that the client is using which defense mechanism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is (B) Identification. In this scenario, the client is imitating the nurse's mannerisms, which is a form of identification, a defense mechanism where an individual adopts the characteristics or behaviors of someone they admire or view as powerful. (A) Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable actions, not imitation. (C) Introjection is the internalization of external qualities or attributes, not imitation. (D) Repression is the unconscious exclusion of painful thoughts or memories from awareness, which is not demonstrated in this case.
A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while she vigorously does push-ups and then runs the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to toss chairs aside, looking for a red one to sit in. When another client objects to the disturbance, the client shouts, 'I am the boss here. I do what I want.' Which nursing problem best supports these observations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's disruptive and potentially harmful behavior, including tossing chairs and claiming authority, indicates a risk for other-directed violence. This behavior poses a threat to the safety of the client and others. While the client may have excess energy, the primary concern is the potential for violence, not just a lack of diversional activities (Choice A). The client's behavior is not solely due to hyperactivity leading to activity intolerance (Choice C) or grandiosity affecting personal identity (Choice D), making these options less appropriate in this context.
When developing a plan of care for a client in the psychiatric unit following aspiration of a caustic material related to a suicide attempt, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client aspirates a caustic material, the priority nursing diagnosis should focus on addressing physiological concerns, particularly related to breathing patterns. Aspiration of caustic material can lead to airway compromise, respiratory distress, and potential lung damage. Therefore, monitoring and addressing ineffective breathing patterns are crucial for ensuring the client's immediate safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and C are important considerations in psychiatric care but are secondary to the critical physiological issue of ineffective breathing patterns in this scenario.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with schizophrenia who is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). Which information should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'You need to come in for regular blood tests.' Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition, so regular blood tests are required to monitor the client's white blood cell count. Choice B is incorrect because clozapine is associated with weight gain, not weight loss. Choice C is incorrect because the client should never stop taking clozapine abruptly due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms and symptom relapse. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding foods high in tyramine is typically associated with MAOIs, not clozapine.
A client with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering prescribed medications to manage withdrawal symptoms is the priority intervention for a client undergoing detoxification. This intervention aims to prevent severe complications that may arise during the detox process. Monitoring for signs of withdrawal (choice A) is important but providing immediate medical management through medications takes precedence to ensure the client's safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings (choice B) and providing information about support groups (choice C) are essential aspects of care but are not as urgent as administering medications to manage withdrawal symptoms.
A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important laboratory test for an LPN/LVN to monitor for a client with schizophrenia being treated with clozapine is the white blood cell count. Clozapine treatment is associated with a risk of agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count regularly helps to detect this adverse effect early. Liver function tests (Choice B) are important to monitor with some antipsychotic medications but are not the most crucial for clozapine. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) are more relevant for monitoring in clients on medications like atypical antipsychotics that can cause metabolic side effects. Platelet count (Choice D) is not typically affected by clozapine therapy and is not the most important test to monitor in this case.
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asking the client what the voices are saying is the most appropriate intervention as it helps the nurse assess the content of the hallucinations and the potential risk they may pose. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue or provide valuable information for the nurse. Distracting the client with a new activity (Choice C) may temporarily divert attention but does not address the hallucinations. Telling the client that the voices are not real (Choice D) may invalidate the client's experience and can lead to distrust in the therapeutic relationship.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.