HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI
1. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client’s admitting diagnosis?
- A. Jugular vein distention.
- B. Crackles in the lung bases.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Bounding peripheral pulses.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lung bases. Crackles in the lung bases are indicative of pulmonary congestion, which is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure leads to a backup of blood into the lungs, causing fluid leakage into the alveoli and resulting in crackles upon auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to left-sided heart failure. Jugular vein distention can be seen in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema can be seen in both right and left-sided heart failure, and bounding peripheral pulses are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or anemia rather than specifically supporting left-sided heart failure.
2. After a CT scan with intravenous contrast medium, a client returns to the room complaining of shortness of breath and itching. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Call respiratory therapy to administer a breathing treatment.
- B. Send for an emergency tracheostomy set.
- C. Prepare a dose of epinephrine.
- D. Review the client's complete list of allergies.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Preparing a dose of epinephrine is the correct intervention in this situation as the client is displaying symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the contrast medium used during the CT scan. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Calling respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment (Choice A) may not address the underlying allergic reaction and delay appropriate treatment. Sending for an emergency tracheostomy set (Choice B) is not indicated as the client's symptoms suggest an allergic reaction rather than airway obstruction. Reviewing the client's complete list of allergies (Choice D) is important but would not provide immediate relief for the client's current symptoms; administering epinephrine takes precedence in this situation.
3. A 55-year-old client with symptoms of osteoarthritis asks which form of exercise would be most beneficial. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Walking.
- B. Running.
- C. Swimming.
- D. Weight lifting.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Swimming.' Swimming is a low-impact exercise that helps maintain joint mobility and reduce pain in clients with osteoarthritis. Unlike running or weight lifting, swimming is gentle on the joints, making it an ideal choice for individuals with osteoarthritis. Walking can be beneficial too, but swimming is often preferred due to its low-impact nature. Running and weight lifting may exacerbate joint pain and should be avoided by individuals with osteoarthritis.
4. An adult client is admitted with AIDS and oral candidiasis manifested by several painful mouth ulcers. The nurse delegates oral care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and discusses how to assist the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
- A. Assist with personal care, but leave oral care for the nurse to complete.
- B. Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.
- C. Use alcohol-based mouthwash to clean the ulcers.
- D. Apply an antifungal cream to the mouth ulcers.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.' Providing a soft bristle brush helps reduce trauma to the oral mucosa and assists in oral care. Choice A is incorrect because oral care can be safely delegated to UAPs. Choice C is wrong as alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as applying an antifungal cream directly to the mouth ulcers is not the standard treatment for oral candidiasis.
5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Avoid taking folic acid supplements
- B. Report any signs of infection immediately
- C. Limit fluid intake to prevent edema
- D. Increase intake of high-calcium foods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed methotrexate is to report any signs of infection immediately. Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the individual more susceptible to infections. Reporting signs of infection promptly allows for timely intervention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding folic acid supplements is not recommended because methotrexate can lead to folate deficiency, so supplementation may be necessary. There is no direct correlation between fluid intake limitation and methotrexate use. Increasing high-calcium foods is not specifically related to methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.
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