Free HESI LPN Medical Surgical Nursing practice for Medical Surgical HESI (HESI LPN). Answer 46 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and pro
A client who is newly diagnosed with emphysema is being prepared for discharge. Which instruction is best for the nurse to provide the client to assist them with dyspnea self-management?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to practice inhaling through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips can help improve oxygenation and reduce dyspnea. This technique, known as pursed lip breathing, can help regulate breathing patterns and decrease the work of breathing in clients with emphysema. Choice A is incorrect because allowing additional time for physical activities does not directly address dyspnea management. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier, although beneficial for respiratory conditions, does not specifically assist with dyspnea self-management. Choice D is also incorrect as strengthening abdominal muscles through leg raises does not directly target dyspnea relief.
After a CT scan with intravenous contrast medium, a client returns to the room complaining of shortness of breath and itching. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Preparing a dose of epinephrine is the correct intervention in this situation as the client is displaying symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the contrast medium used during the CT scan. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Calling respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment (Choice A) may not address the underlying allergic reaction and delay appropriate treatment. Sending for an emergency tracheostomy set (Choice B) is not indicated as the client's symptoms suggest an allergic reaction rather than airway obstruction. Reviewing the client's complete list of allergies (Choice D) is important but would not provide immediate relief for the client's current symptoms; administering epinephrine takes precedence in this situation.
A postoperative client reports incisional pain. The client has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia that accompanied the client from the post-anesthesia unit. Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should implement before selecting which medication to administer to a postoperative client who reports incisional pain is to compare the client's pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing. This ensures that the client receives the appropriate medication based on their pain level. Documenting the client's report of pain in the electronic medical record (Choice A) is important but should come after ensuring the right medication is given. Determining which prescription will have the quickest onset of action (Choice B) may not be the most relevant factor to consider when choosing the appropriate medication. Asking the client to choose the medication needed for the pain (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the nurse should rely on the pain scale rating and prescribed dosing to make a clinical decision.
Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.
The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Carotid bruit. A carotid bruit is a significant risk factor for stroke as it indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowing of the carotid artery. Nuchal rigidity is associated with meningitis, jugular vein distention can be a sign of heart failure, and palpable cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection, but they are not directly linked to stroke risk.
The nurse explains to the parents of a child with developmental hip dysplasia that the application of a Pavlik harness is necessary. In what position will the harness hold the child's femurs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Abduction. The use of the Pavlik harness is to maintain the hips in abduction for 4 to 6 months to treat developmental hip dysplasia. This position helps in stabilizing the hip joint and promoting proper growth and development. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Pavlik harness specifically aims to hold the child's femurs in abduction, not adduction, flexion, or extension.
A male client with heart failure calls the clinic and reports that he cannot put his shoes on because they are too tight. Which additional information should the nurse obtain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Has his weight changed in the last several days?' Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a common symptom of worsening heart failure. The inability to put on tight shoes can be due to fluid retention leading to swelling in the feet and ankles. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the potential fluid retention issue and are less relevant in this scenario.
In a disaster area, a nurse assesses an adult male with partial-thickness burns on his lower legs, approximately 10% of his lower body. Which color of triage tag should the nurse place on this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A yellow triage tag should be placed on the client with partial-thickness burns covering 10% of his lower body. Yellow tags indicate delayed treatment, suitable for serious injuries that are not immediately life-threatening. Black tags are used for deceased individuals, red tags for immediate treatment of life-threatening injuries, and green tags for minor injuries.
The nurse assesses an adult male client 24 hours following abdominal surgery and finds that his blood pressure is 98/40 mm Hg, he is tachycardic, restless, and irritable. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should first check under the client for evidence of bleeding. A blood pressure of 98/40 mm Hg, along with tachycardia, restlessness, and irritability, could indicate internal hemorrhage following abdominal surgery. Checking for bleeding under the back is crucial to rule out this life-threatening complication. Notifying the healthcare provider, ensuring IV infusion, or listening to lung sounds can be important but are secondary to ruling out immediate life-threatening conditions like internal bleeding.
What most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The gestational age at birth most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). RDS is caused by a deficiency of surfactant and it occurs almost exclusively in preterm, low-birth weight infants. Therefore, the gestational age at birth is a key factor in determining the likelihood and severity of RDS. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary factor influencing the severity of RDS.
A male client with diabetes mellitus is transferred from the hospital to a rehabilitation facility following treatment for a stroke resulting in right hemiplegia. He tells the nurse that his feet are always uncomfortably cool at night, preventing him from falling asleep. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing warm blankets next to the client's feet is the most appropriate action to provide warmth and comfort. This method is safe and effective in addressing the client's complaint of uncomfortably cool feet at night. Providing a warming pad (Choice A) may pose a risk of burns or injury, especially for a client with decreased sensation due to diabetes. Mediating the client with a sedative (Choice B) does not address the underlying issue of cool feet and may not be necessary. Using a bed cradle (Choice C) to hold the covers off the feet does not directly address the client's need for warmth and comfort.
A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.
The mother of a child who has been diagnosed with varicella asks the nurse when the child can return to school. When is the child no longer contagious?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'When the lesions are crusted over.' Varicella is no longer contagious once the lesions are dry and crusted. This stage indicates that the active viral shedding has significantly decreased, reducing the risk of transmission. Choice A, 'When the fever dissipates,' is incorrect because the presence of fever does not necessarily correlate with the contagiousness of varicella. Choice B, 'After the incubation period,' is incorrect as the incubation period occurs before the onset of symptoms and is not relevant to determining contagiousness. Choice C, 'When the lesions have healed,' is incorrect as healed lesions can still be contagious if they are not crusted over.
A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the desired effect of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Reduce serum ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis, helping to prevent hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for excretion. Decreasing blood glucose levels (choice A) is not the primary effect of lactulose. Increasing platelet count (choice C) and lowering serum bilirubin levels (choice D) are not direct effects of lactulose in the management of cirrhosis.
When selecting patient problems for the 4-year-old child with nephrosis, what should be a priority for the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Skin impairment. Nephrosis is characterized by gross edema, making skin care a priority. Skin impairment can result from the edema and needs close monitoring and management. While nutritional deficit and injury are important considerations in patient care, they are not the priority when dealing with a child with nephrosis. Impaired body image is not typically a priority in the immediate care of a young child with nephrosis.
Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a chest tube. Which finding indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tidaling in the water seal chamber indicates proper chest tube function. Tidaling refers to the rise and fall of fluid in the water seal with inhalation and exhalation, demonstrating the patency of the system. Continuous bubbling (Choice A) in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (Choice C) is not a desired finding as it suggests no drainage is occurring. A fluid level below the prescribed level in the suction control chamber (Choice D) may indicate inadequate suction.
A male client with Herpes Zoster (shingles) on his thorax tells the nurse that he is having difficulty sleeping. What is the etiology of this problem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Pain. The pain caused by Herpes Zoster (shingles) can disrupt sleep patterns. It is a common symptom of shingles and can lead to difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep. Nocturia (B), dyspnea (C), and frequent cough (D) are not typically associated with shingles and would not directly cause difficulty sleeping in this scenario.
Methotrexate is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who is also taking aspirin. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide as to why a second medication has been added?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that slows the progression of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), while aspirin helps control symptoms such as pain and inflammation. Therefore, the combination of methotrexate and aspirin is beneficial in managing RA by addressing both disease progression and symptom control. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not added to reduce the side effects of aspirin, has different side effects compared to aspirin, and does not enhance the effect of aspirin.
The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected stroke. Which assessment finding is most indicative of a stroke?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Sudden confusion and difficulty speaking. These are classic signs of a stroke, indicating a neurological deficit that requires urgent medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are less indicative of a stroke. Chest pain is more commonly associated with cardiac issues, gradual onset of weakness in the legs could be related to other conditions like peripheral neuropathy, and nausea/vomiting may suggest gastrointestinal problems rather than a stroke.
Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction that the nurse should include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed methotrexate is to report any signs of infection immediately. Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the individual more susceptible to infections. Reporting signs of infection promptly allows for timely intervention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding folic acid supplements is not recommended because methotrexate can lead to folate deficiency, so supplementation may be necessary. There is no direct correlation between fluid intake limitation and methotrexate use. Increasing high-calcium foods is not specifically related to methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.
Which is a priority nursing intervention for the cognitively impaired child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because nursing interventions for cognitively impaired children prioritize promoting loving interactions with family. This support helps in creating a nurturing environment that contributes to the child's well-being and development. Choice A is not the priority as good nutrition, though important, may not address the immediate emotional and social needs of the child. Choice C is vague and does not specify how stimulation will be provided. Choice D, contact with peers, is also valuable but not as crucial as the primary relationships and interactions within the family unit for a cognitively impaired child.
An infant has been diagnosed with cradle cap. What is the correct intervention to treat the scalp?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cradle cap is a common condition in infants characterized by crusty patches on the scalp. The correct intervention to treat cradle cap is to apply mineral oil. Mineral oil helps soften the crusty patches, making it easier to remove them gently. Alcohol (Choice A) can be too harsh for an infant's sensitive skin and may cause irritation. Calamine (Choice C) is used to relieve itching associated with conditions like chickenpox or insect bites, not for treating cradle cap. A&D ointment (Choice D) is typically used for diaper rash and minor skin irritations, not for cradle cap.
The nurse is assessing a client who has herpes zoster. Which question will allow the nurse to gather further information about this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Has everyone at home already had varicella?' Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. By knowing if others at home had varicella (chickenpox), the nurse can assess the risk of transmission and provide appropriate guidance. Choice B is incorrect because antifungal creams are not effective for herpes zoster, which is a viral infection. Choice C is irrelevant to herpes zoster as it pertains to sharing personal items that may transmit head lice or certain skin infections. Choice D is also unrelated as it focuses on dry patches, not typical manifestations of herpes zoster which presents as a painful rash.
In planning care for a postoperative client with hypovolemic shock, which problem is most important to include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Risk for falls. In a postoperative client with hypovolemic shock, the most crucial problem to address is the risk for falls. Hypovolemic shock can result in dizziness and weakness, making the client prone to falling. Preventing falls is essential to avoid further injury or complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the top priority in this scenario. While infection, impaired skin integrity, and activity intolerance are important concerns, preventing falls takes precedence due to the immediate risk of injury associated with hypovolemic shock.
A client who has a history of hyperthyroidism was initially admitted with lethargy and confusion. Which additional finding warrants the most immediate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A further decline in LOC can indicate severe complications and requires immediate attention. This change may signify worsening neurological status, which could lead to life-threatening consequences if not addressed promptly. Choices A, B, and C may also be concerning in a client with a history of hyperthyroidism, but a further decline in LOC takes priority due to its potential for rapid deterioration and the need for urgent intervention.
A client who has a history of unstable angina is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chest pain unrelieved after taking 3 sequential nitroglycerin tablets indicates a possible myocardial infarction and requires immediate medical attention.
A client is currently receiving an infusion labeled as 5% dextrose injection 500 ml with heparin sodium 25,000 units at 14 mL/hour per pump. A prescription is received to change the rate of the infusion to heparin 1,000 units/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To deliver 1,000 units/hour from a solution with 25,000 units in 500 ml, the rate should be set to 20 ml/hour. This is calculated by determining that the solution has 50 units/ml (25,000 units / 500 ml = 50 units/ml) and then dividing the required 1,000 units/hour by 50 units/ml, resulting in 20 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver heparin at 20 ml/hour. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated rate of 20 ml/hour.
A client reports new onset hearing loss bilaterally after taking a medication with known ototoxic effects. Which type of hearing loss should the nurse suspect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Sensorineural. Ototoxic medications can lead to sensorineural hearing loss by affecting the inner ear or auditory nerve. Conductive hearing loss is related to issues in the middle or outer ear, not typically caused by ototoxic medications. Mixed hearing loss is a combination of conductive and sensorineural components. Central hearing loss is related to the central nervous system, not commonly caused by ototoxic medications. Therefore, in this case, the nurse should suspect sensorineural hearing loss.
An 82-year-old female client with type 2 diabetes and degenerative arthritis complains to the nurse that she has a hard time cutting her toenails. What should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For an 82-year-old female client with type 2 diabetes and degenerative arthritis, the nurse should recommend seeking routine nail care with a podiatrist. This is crucial to ensure proper and safe toenail care, reducing the risk of injury and infection, which is especially important for diabetic clients. Encouraging monthly pedicures at a nail salon (choice B) may not address the underlying issues related to diabetes and arthritis. Soaking feet for 10 minutes before cutting nails (choice C) may help soften the nails but does not address the difficulty the client faces in cutting them. Asking a family member to cut toenails (choice D) may not guarantee the expertise needed for proper diabetic foot care, which a podiatrist can provide.
The healthcare provider prescribes Cytovene 375 mg every 12 hours to infuse over 90 minutes. The pharmacy delivers Cytovene 375 mg in a 150 mL IV bag. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To infuse 150 mL over 90 minutes, the pump should be set to 100 ml/hour (150 mL / 1.5 hours). This rate ensures that the medication is delivered at the proper rate as prescribed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the volume of the IV bag and the infusion duration provided in the question.
How should the nurse measure urinary output for an infant with dehydration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct way to measure urinary output for an infant with dehydration is by weighing the diaper. Wet diapers are weighed to assess the amount of output accurately. Attaching a urine collecting bag and inserting a catheter are invasive methods not typically used for routine measurement of urinary output in infants. Wringing out the diaper can lead to inaccurate measurements and is not a recommended method for assessing urinary output.
While assisting a female client to the toilet, the client begins to have a seizure, and the nurse eases her to the floor. The nurse calls for help and monitors the client until the seizing stops. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Documenting details of the seizure activity is the priority intervention as it is crucial for medical records and future care planning. This documentation can provide vital information for healthcare providers in understanding the type, duration, and characteristics of the seizure. Observing for lacerations on the tongue, prolonged periods of apnea, or evidence of incontinence are important assessments, but they come after documenting the seizure activity.
A 55-year-old client with symptoms of osteoarthritis asks which form of exercise would be most beneficial. What is the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Swimming.' Swimming is a low-impact exercise that helps maintain joint mobility and reduce pain in clients with osteoarthritis. Unlike running or weight lifting, swimming is gentle on the joints, making it an ideal choice for individuals with osteoarthritis. Walking can be beneficial too, but swimming is often preferred due to its low-impact nature. Running and weight lifting may exacerbate joint pain and should be avoided by individuals with osteoarthritis.
An overweight, young adult male who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for a hernia repair. He tells the nurse that he is feeling very weak and jittery. Which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the patient is a young adult male with type 2 diabetes mellitus admitted for a hernia repair who is experiencing weakness and jitteriness. Checking his fingerstick glucose is crucial to assess his blood sugar levels, which can directly impact his symptoms. Assessing his skin temperature and moisture is important to evaluate his peripheral circulation and hydration status. Measuring his pulse and blood pressure helps in gauging his cardiovascular status. Therefore, all the actions mentioned in choices A, B, and C are appropriate for the nurse to implement in this situation to identify the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer because all these actions are necessary for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they each address different aspects of the patient's condition, and a holistic approach is needed to provide optimal care in this situation.
When performing postural drainage on a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which approach should the nurse use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct approach when performing postural drainage on a client with COPD is to assist the patient into a position that allows gravity to help move secretions. This position helps drain secretions from specific segments of the lungs. Obtaining arterial blood gases (Choice A) is not directly related to postural drainage. While the client may be placed in multiple positions during postural drainage, the key is to position them to facilitate the movement of secretions, not just any five positions as mentioned in Choice B. Encouraging deep breathing (Choice D) is a good nursing intervention for overall respiratory health but is not specifically related to the technique of postural drainage.
The nurse is teaching a client with glomerulonephritis about self-care. Which dietary recommendations should the nurse encourage the client to follow?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Restrict protein intake by limiting meats and other high-protein foods. In glomerulonephritis, reducing protein intake helps to lower the workload on the kidneys, as excessive protein can lead to increased production of waste products that the kidneys must filter. This restriction can help prevent further damage to the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Increasing high-fiber foods like bran cereal is beneficial for other conditions but not specific to glomerulonephritis. C) Limiting oral fluid intake to 500ml per day is not appropriate as fluid restrictions are usually individualized based on the client's condition and kidney function. D) Increasing potassium-rich foods like bananas and cantaloupe may not be suitable for all clients with glomerulonephritis, as potassium levels can be affected in kidney disease and individual needs may vary.
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Limit intake of foods high in vitamin K'. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication commonly used to treat conditions like deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods and be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin C, increasing intake of green leafy vegetables, and avoiding dairy products are not essential dietary instructions for a client on warfarin therapy for DVT.
Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, what should be used to prevent injury to the suture line?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, a cup should be used to prevent injury to the suture line. Utensils such as straws, spoons, droppers, and syringes should be avoided as they can cause trauma to the surgical site. Using a cup reduces the risk of disrupting the sutures and promotes proper healing.
The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis. Which symptom is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with myasthenia gravis, difficulty swallowing is the most crucial symptom to report to the healthcare provider. This is because it can lead to aspiration, a severe complication in these clients. Diplopia (double vision) and weakness in the legs are common symptoms of myasthenia gravis but are not as immediately dangerous as difficulty swallowing. Fatigue is also a common symptom in myasthenia gravis but does not pose the same risk of aspiration as difficulty swallowing.
When caring for a 7-week-old infant with hypothyroidism, the nurse explains that the prevention of what complication is dependent on the administration of oral thyroid replacement therapy and is critical for the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Cognitive impairment. The treatment of choice for congenital and acquired hypothyroidism is oral thyroid hormone replacement therapy. Prompt treatment is especially critical in the infant with congenital hypothyroidism to avoid permanent cognitive impairment. Excessive growth (Choice A) is not a common complication of hypothyroidism in infants. Damage to the nervous system (Choice C) and damage to the urinary system (Choice D) are not typically associated with untreated hypothyroidism in infants.
Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who has a chest tube due to hemothorax?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging deep breathing and coughing is vital for a client with a chest tube due to hemothorax as it helps prevent atelectasis and promotes lung expansion. Keeping the arm and shoulder immobile (Choice A) is not necessary for chest tube management. Maintaining the pleura vac slightly above the chest level (Choice C) is incorrect as the pleura vac should be kept below the chest level to facilitate drainage. Ensuring no fluctuation in the water seal (Choice D) is important, but it is not the priority intervention when compared to promoting lung expansion through deep breathing and coughing.
A client who had surgery yesterday is becoming increasingly anxious. The client's respiratory rate has increased to 38 breaths/minute. The client has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction with 500 ml of yellow-green drainage over the last four hours. The client's arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate a decreased CO2 and an increased serum pH. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Electrolytes. In this scenario, the client is at risk for metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric secretions through the nasogastric tube. Monitoring electrolytes is crucial to assess the levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate, which are important in maintaining the acid-base balance of the body. Changes in these electrolyte levels can provide valuable information about the client's fluid status and acid-base balance. Creatinine, blood urea nitrogen, and glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in different situations but are not the priority in this case of potential metabolic alkalosis.
A young adult male is admitted to the intensive care unit with multiple rib fractures and severe pulmonary contusions after falling 20 feet from a rooftop. The Chest X-ray suggests acute Respiratory distress Syndrome. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the Nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a patient with multiple rib fractures, severe pulmonary contusions, and possible acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), tachypnea (rapid breathing) with dyspnea (shortness of breath) is a critical sign of respiratory distress that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. Tachypnea and dyspnea indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which can lead to respiratory failure if not addressed promptly. The other options, such as apical pulse rate, core body temperature, and bruises over the chest area, are important assessments but do not directly indicate the immediate need for intervention in a patient with respiratory distress.
An adult client who received partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body in a house fire is admitted to the inpatient burn unit.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In burn patients, Lactated Ringer's solution is preferred over other options as it helps in restoring fluid and electrolyte balance effectively. Lactated Ringer's contains electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium) that closely mimic the body's natural composition, making it a suitable choice for fluid resuscitation in burn injuries. Normal Saline (Choice A) lacks electrolytes like potassium and calcium, which are essential in burn management. 5% Dextrose in water (Choice C) is a hypotonic solution and is not the ideal choice for fluid resuscitation in burn patients. 0.45% Sodium Chloride (Choice D) is a hypotonic solution mainly used for conditions requiring free water replacement rather than volume expansion needed in burn injuries.
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