HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI
1. After a CT scan with intravenous contrast medium, a client returns to the room complaining of shortness of breath and itching. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Call respiratory therapy to administer a breathing treatment.
- B. Send for an emergency tracheostomy set.
- C. Prepare a dose of epinephrine.
- D. Review the client's complete list of allergies.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Preparing a dose of epinephrine is the correct intervention in this situation as the client is displaying symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the contrast medium used during the CT scan. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Calling respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment (Choice A) may not address the underlying allergic reaction and delay appropriate treatment. Sending for an emergency tracheostomy set (Choice B) is not indicated as the client's symptoms suggest an allergic reaction rather than airway obstruction. Reviewing the client's complete list of allergies (Choice D) is important but would not provide immediate relief for the client's current symptoms; administering epinephrine takes precedence in this situation.
2. An adult woman with primary Raynaud phenomenon develops pallor and then cyanosis of her fingers. After warming her hands, the fingers turn red, and the client reports a burning sensation. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Apply a cool compress to the affected fingers for 20 minutes
- B. Secure a pulse oximeter to monitor the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Report the finding to the healthcare provider as soon as possible
- D. Continue to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In primary Raynaud phenomenon, the fingers go through a color sequence of pallor, cyanosis, and then redness when warmed. The burning sensation reported by the client indicates reperfusion. Continuing to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal is appropriate in this situation as it ensures that the symptoms are resolving without the need for further intervention. Applying a cool compress could exacerbate the symptoms by causing vasoconstriction. Securing a pulse oximeter to monitor oxygen saturation is not necessary in this case as the issue is related to vasospasm rather than oxygenation. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider is not urgent unless there are signs of complications or the symptoms do not improve with warming.
3. When selecting patient problems for the 4-year-old child with nephrosis, what should be a priority for the nurse?
- A. Impaired body image
- B. Skin impairment
- C. Nutritional deficit
- D. Injury
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Skin impairment. Nephrosis is characterized by gross edema, making skin care a priority. Skin impairment can result from the edema and needs close monitoring and management. While nutritional deficit and injury are important considerations in patient care, they are not the priority when dealing with a child with nephrosis. Impaired body image is not typically a priority in the immediate care of a young child with nephrosis.
4. Which dietary modification is most appropriate for a client with nephrotic syndrome?
- A. High protein, low sodium
- B. Low protein, high sodium
- C. High protein, high potassium
- D. Low protein, low sodium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary modification for a client with nephrotic syndrome is a low protein, low sodium diet. This diet helps reduce the workload on the kidneys and manage edema, which are common issues in nephrotic syndrome. Choice A, high protein, low sodium, is not recommended because excessive protein intake can further strain the kidneys. Choice B, low protein, high sodium, is inappropriate as high sodium can worsen fluid retention and hypertension. Choice C, high protein, high potassium, is not ideal as high potassium levels can be problematic for individuals with kidney issues.
5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?
- A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
- B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
- C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
- D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.
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