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Nursing Elites

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Medical Surgical HESI

1. After a CT scan with intravenous contrast medium, a client returns to the room complaining of shortness of breath and itching. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preparing a dose of epinephrine is the correct intervention in this situation as the client is displaying symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the contrast medium used during the CT scan. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Calling respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment (Choice A) may not address the underlying allergic reaction and delay appropriate treatment. Sending for an emergency tracheostomy set (Choice B) is not indicated as the client's symptoms suggest an allergic reaction rather than airway obstruction. Reviewing the client's complete list of allergies (Choice D) is important but would not provide immediate relief for the client's current symptoms; administering epinephrine takes precedence in this situation.

2. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.

3. Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.

5. Which additional congenital malformation is expected in 80% of infants with a myelomeningocele?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hydrocephalus is the additional congenital malformation expected in 80% of infants with a myelomeningocele. Myelomeningocele is commonly associated with hydrocephalus due to the abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain. Cerebral palsy (Choice A) is a motor disorder but not typically associated with myelomeningocele. Meningitis (Choice C) is an infection of the meninges and is not a congenital malformation. Neuroblastoma (Choice D) is a type of cancer that originates in immature nerve cells and is not a typical association with myelomeningocele.

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