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Medical Surgical HESI

1. A healthcare worker with no known exposure to tuberculosis has received a Mantoux tuberculosis skin test. The nurse's assessment of the test after 62 hours indicates 5mm of erythema without induration. Which is the best initial nursing action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A Mantoux tuberculosis skin test without induration is considered negative. In this case, with 5mm of erythema and no induration, the result is negative, indicating no current infection. The best initial nursing action is to document these negative results in the healthcare worker's medical record. Reviewing the history for possible exposure to TB is unnecessary as the test result is negative. Instructing the healthcare worker to return for a repeat test or referring for INH therapy is not warranted when the test is negative.

2. A middle-aged man who has a 35-year smoking history presents to the emergency department confused and short of breath. Before starting oxygen, these baseline arterial blood gases (ABGs) are obtained: pH=7.25, pCO2=50 mmHg, HCO3=30 mEq/L. These findings indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing which acid-base imbalance?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ABG results show a low pH (acidosis) and increased pCO2, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the lungs cannot remove enough CO2, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This often occurs in conditions like COPD and is consistent with the patient's smoking history. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is characterized by low pH and low HCO3 levels. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is marked by high pH and high HCO3 levels. Respiratory alkalosis (choice D) presents with high pH and low pCO2.

3. Since children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) take medication for long periods of time, side effects must be considered. How often should children be assessed for side effects of the drug therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Children with ADHD who are on long-term medication therapy should be assessed for side effects every 6 months. This timeframe allows healthcare providers to monitor the effects of the medication and make any necessary adjustments. Checking every 2 months (Choice A) may be too frequent and not practical for routine monitoring, while checking every 4 or 8 months (Choices B and D) may lead to missing potential side effects or delays in addressing them.

4. Which dietary modification is most appropriate for a client with nephrotic syndrome?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary modification for a client with nephrotic syndrome is a low protein, low sodium diet. This diet helps reduce the workload on the kidneys and manage edema, which are common issues in nephrotic syndrome. Choice A, high protein, low sodium, is not recommended because excessive protein intake can further strain the kidneys. Choice B, low protein, high sodium, is inappropriate as high sodium can worsen fluid retention and hypertension. Choice C, high protein, high potassium, is not ideal as high potassium levels can be problematic for individuals with kidney issues.

5. Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, what should be used to prevent injury to the suture line?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following surgical repair of a cleft palate, a cup should be used to prevent injury to the suture line. Utensils such as straws, spoons, droppers, and syringes should be avoided as they can cause trauma to the surgical site. Using a cup reduces the risk of disrupting the sutures and promotes proper healing.

Similar Questions

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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