Medical Surgical HESI

HESI LPN

1. How is gastroesophageal reflux (GER) typically treated in infants?

A. By placing the infant NPO
B. By thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal
C. By placing the infant to sleep on the side
D. By switching the infant to cow's milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is typically treated by thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal. This helps reduce reflux episodes by making the feedings heavier and less likely to come back up. Placing the infant NPO (nothing by mouth) is not the typical treatment for GER as infants need proper nutrition for growth. Placing the infant to sleep on the side is not recommended due to the risk of SIDS; infants should be placed on their back to sleep. Switching the infant to cow's milk is also not a treatment for GER, as cow's milk can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.

2. What are early signs of varicella disease?

A. High fever over 101°F (38.3°C)
B. General malaise
C. Increased appetite
D. Crusty sores

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct early sign of varicella disease is general malaise. During the prodromal period, patients may experience low-grade fever, malaise, and anorexia. Increased appetite and crusty sores are not typically early signs of varicella. The appearance of lesions occurs later in the course of the disease.

3. When performing an assessment of a child with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP), what symptom is the child most likely to experience?

A. Increased temperature
B. Constipation
C. Right quadrant pain
D. Exercise-associated pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a child with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP), constipation is a common symptom. Children with RAP often experience periumbilical pain that is unrelated to eating, defecation, or exercise. While increased temperature, right quadrant pain, and exercise-associated pain can occur in various conditions, they are not typically associated with RAP in children.

4. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?

A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.

5. A middle-aged man who has a 35-year smoking history presents to the emergency department confused and short of breath. Before starting oxygen, these baseline arterial blood gases (ABGs) are obtained: pH=7.25, pCO2=50 mmHg, HCO3=30 mEq/L. These findings indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing which acid-base imbalance?

A. Metabolic acidosis.
B. Respiratory acidosis.
C. Metabolic alkalosis.
D. Respiratory alkalosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ABG results show a low pH (acidosis) and increased pCO2, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the lungs cannot remove enough CO2, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This often occurs in conditions like COPD and is consistent with the patient's smoking history. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is characterized by low pH and low HCO3 levels. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is marked by high pH and high HCO3 levels. Respiratory alkalosis (choice D) presents with high pH and low pCO2.