HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI
1. A healthcare worker with no known exposure to tuberculosis has received a Mantoux tuberculosis skin test. The nurse's assessment of the test after 62 hours indicates 5mm of erythema without induration. Which is the best initial nursing action?
- A. Review the healthcare worker's history for possible exposure to TB.
- B. Instruct the healthcare worker to return for a repeat test in 1 week.
- C. Refer the healthcare worker to a healthcare provider for isoniazid (INH) therapy.
- D. Document negative results in the healthcare worker's medical record.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A Mantoux tuberculosis skin test without induration is considered negative. In this case, with 5mm of erythema and no induration, the result is negative, indicating no current infection. The best initial nursing action is to document these negative results in the healthcare worker's medical record. Reviewing the history for possible exposure to TB is unnecessary as the test result is negative. Instructing the healthcare worker to return for a repeat test or referring for INH therapy is not warranted when the test is negative.
2. An adult woman with primary Raynaud phenomenon develops pallor and then cyanosis of her fingers. After warming her hands, the fingers turn red, and the client reports a burning sensation. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Apply a cool compress to the affected fingers for 20 minutes
- B. Secure a pulse oximeter to monitor the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Report the finding to the healthcare provider as soon as possible
- D. Continue to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In primary Raynaud phenomenon, the fingers go through a color sequence of pallor, cyanosis, and then redness when warmed. The burning sensation reported by the client indicates reperfusion. Continuing to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal is appropriate in this situation as it ensures that the symptoms are resolving without the need for further intervention. Applying a cool compress could exacerbate the symptoms by causing vasoconstriction. Securing a pulse oximeter to monitor oxygen saturation is not necessary in this case as the issue is related to vasospasm rather than oxygenation. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider is not urgent unless there are signs of complications or the symptoms do not improve with warming.
3. An adult client is admitted with AIDS and oral candidiasis manifested by several painful mouth ulcers. The nurse delegates oral care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and discusses how to assist the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
- A. Assist with personal care, but leave oral care for the nurse to complete.
- B. Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.
- C. Use alcohol-based mouthwash to clean the ulcers.
- D. Apply an antifungal cream to the mouth ulcers.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.' Providing a soft bristle brush helps reduce trauma to the oral mucosa and assists in oral care. Choice A is incorrect because oral care can be safely delegated to UAPs. Choice C is wrong as alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as applying an antifungal cream directly to the mouth ulcers is not the standard treatment for oral candidiasis.
4. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
- B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
- C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
- D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.
5. Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?
- A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
- B. This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
- C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
- D. The child may not have had it for a long time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.
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