Free HESI LPN Fundamentals of Nursing practice for HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals (HESI LPN). Answer 94 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.
The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.
The nurse is working on an orthopedic rehabilitation unit that requires lifting and positioning of patients. Which personal injury will the nurse most likely try to prevent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Back. Back injuries are common among healthcare workers, especially nurses, due to improper lifting techniques and bending. Working on an orthopedic rehabilitation unit involves frequent lifting and positioning of patients, putting the nurse at risk of back injuries. Preventing back injuries is crucial for maintaining the nurse's health and ability to provide care effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while lifting and positioning patients may involve these body parts, back injuries are most likely to occur due to the strain and stress placed on the back during such activities.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has signs of hemorrhagic shock. When the nurse notifies the surgeon, he directs her to continue to measure the client's vitals every 15 minutes and call him back in 1 hour. From a legal perspective, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should choose option B, which is to document the client's condition and communication with the surgeon. By documenting the client's condition and the communication with the surgeon, the nurse ensures legal protection and maintains continuity of care. This documentation serves as evidence of the actions taken, communication exchanged, and the rationale behind decisions made. Option A, notifying the nursing manager, may not be necessary at this stage unless there are specific institutional protocols requiring it. Administering additional fluids without further clarification may not be appropriate and could worsen the client's condition if not indicated. Calling the surgeon back immediately (option D) may disrupt the agreed-upon plan of action and fail to follow the surgeon's instructions of reassessment after an hour.
A healthcare professional is caring for a child who has a prescription for a blood transfusion. The parents have refused the treatment due to religious beliefs. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Examining personal values about the issue is crucial for the healthcare professional to provide unbiased care while still respecting the parents' beliefs. Choice B is incorrect because respecting the parents' decision is essential, but providing alternative treatment options may not be warranted in this situation where the parents' decision is based on religious beliefs. Seeking a court order (Choice C) should only be considered as a last resort when the child's life is in immediate danger and all other options have been exhausted. Discussing the issue with the child (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the child may not fully comprehend the situation or the implications of going against the parents' beliefs.
During a peripheral vascular assessment, a healthcare professional places the bell of the stethoscope on a client's neck and hears an audible vascular sound associated with turbulent blood flow. This sound indicates which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Narrowed arterial lumen. Arterial bruits are abnormal sounds caused by turbulent blood flow through narrowed or occluded arteries. This turbulent flow creates a blowing sound, which is heard as an arterial bruit. Distended jugular veins (choice B) are typically associated with venous issues, not arterial abnormalities. Impaired ventricular contraction (choice C) and asynchronous closure of the aortic and pulmonic valve (choice D) are not directly related to the audible vascular sound described in the scenario.
The healthcare provider retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM every 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare provider administer to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct dosage calculation is to divide the prescribed dose by the concentration of the medication to determine the volume needed. In this case, 3 mg (prescribed dose) divided by 4 mg/mL (concentration) equals 0.75 mL. Therefore, the healthcare provider should administer 0.75 mL of hydromorphone to the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume based on the prescription and concentration provided.
A nurse is preparing an education program for staff about advocacy. What information should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Advocacy in nursing involves ensuring clients' safety, health, and rights. Nurses advocate for their clients by promoting autonomy, informed decision-making, and protecting their rights. Choice B is incorrect because advocacy goes beyond just supporting client complaints; it encompasses a broader scope of ensuring holistic care and well-being. Choice C is incorrect as advocacy does not mean making all decisions for the client but rather empowering them to make informed choices. Choice D is incorrect as advocacy is a crucial component of nursing responsibilities, as it involves standing up for clients' best interests and ensuring their rights are respected.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a young adult client. Which of the following injection sites is the safest for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The ventrogluteal site is considered the safest for intramuscular injections in young adult clients due to its location away from major nerves and blood vessels. The ventrogluteal site is preferred over the dorsogluteal site, as the latter is associated with a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The deltoid site is commonly used for vaccines but may not be suitable for all intramuscular injections due to smaller muscle mass. The vastus lateralis site is often used in infants and young children, but in young adults, the ventrogluteal site is preferred for safety and efficacy.
The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place for decompression. What action should the LPN/LVN take to maintain patency of the NG tube?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To maintain patency of the NG tube, it is essential to irrigate the tube with normal saline every shift. This action helps prevent clogging and ensures that the tube remains clear for effective decompression. Checking tube placement by auscultation (Choice B) is important for verifying correct placement but does not directly impact patency. Securing the tube to the client's gown (Choice C) is crucial for safety and comfort but is not directly related to maintaining patency. Flushing the tube with sterile water before and after medication administration (Choice D) is not the recommended method for maintaining patency of an NG tube, as normal saline is the appropriate solution for this purpose.
A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing a client in seclusion without proper justification and documentation can lead to charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint, regardless of the client's compliance. This legal issue arises from the potential violation of the client's rights and must be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as the situation does not involve assault and battery. Choice C is incorrect as past violence alone does not justify seclusion without immediate risk. Choice D is incorrect as seclusion should be used based on individual risk and necessity, not solely for maintaining the therapeutic milieu.
A nurse is caring for a client who has herpes zoster. The client asks about complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that this condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Acupuncture. Acupuncture is contraindicated for clients with herpes zoster due to the risk of infection at the needle sites. In individuals with herpes zoster, the skin's integrity is compromised, increasing susceptibility to infections. Therefore, acupuncture, which involves inserting needles into the skin, can introduce pathogens and lead to local infections. Massage therapy (B), aromatherapy (C), and herbal supplements (D) do not involve skin penetration like acupuncture and are generally considered safe complementary therapies for pain control in clients with herpes zoster.
A nurse prepares an injection of morphine to administer to a client who reports pain but asks a second nurse to give the injection because another assigned client needs to use a bedpan. Which of the following actions should the second nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The second nurse should prepare a new syringe and administer the medication to ensure proper and timely pain management. Administering another nurse's medication without preparation could lead to errors. Choice A is not the priority as the medication administration should take precedence. Choice B is not recommended as the second nurse should not administer medication prepared by another nurse. Choice D is inappropriate as patient needs should not be compromised for medication administration to another client.
The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which observation indicates that the client is experiencing oxygen toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Oxygen toxicity can manifest with symptoms like a sore throat, cough, chest pain, difficulty breathing, and fatigue. However, a sore throat can be an early indicator of oxygen toxicity and should prompt immediate attention. Nasal congestion, cough, and fatigue are not specific indicators of oxygen toxicity but could be related to other factors in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy.
A nurse in a provider's office is obtaining the health and medication history of a client who has a respiratory infection. The client tells the nurse that she is not aware of any allergies, but that she did develop a rash the last time she was taking an antibiotic. Which of the following information should the nurse give to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should advise the client to document the exact medication taken to identify potential allergies and prevent adverse reactions. This is important as the client developed a rash previously while taking an antibiotic, indicating a possible allergic reaction. Choice B is not appropriate as switching antibiotics without proper evaluation can be risky. Choice C is incorrect as rashes should not be dismissed without further investigation, especially in the context of taking medication. Choice D is also not recommended as re-taking the same antibiotic without clarifying the allergic reaction can lead to a potentially severe outcome.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, respiratory distress is the most concerning finding as it can indicate progression to respiratory failure, which is a life-threatening complication. Loss of reflexes in the legs and muscle weakness in the arms are common manifestations of the condition but may not be as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Decreased peripheral sensation is also a common symptom but is not as critical as respiratory distress in terms of immediate patient safety and management.
A client has just returned from surgery with an indwelling urinary catheter in place. What is the most important action for the nurse to take to prevent infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial action to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks. Kinks in the tubing can lead to urine retention or obstruction, increasing the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not necessary if there are no signs of infection or other issues. Cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily is important for hygiene but not the most critical action to prevent infection related to the catheter. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift is not a routine practice and may increase the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary system.
A healthcare professional is preparing to transfer a client who can bear weight on one leg from the bed to a chair. After securing a safe environment, which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client for orthostatic hypotension is the priority before transferring a client who can bear weight on one leg. This assessment helps identify the risk of dizziness or fainting when the client moves from a supine to an upright position. Obtaining a gait belt may be necessary for the transfer, but assessing for orthostatic hypotension comes first to ensure the safety of the client. Ensuring the client has proper footwear is important for preventing falls during ambulation but is not the immediate next step in this situation. Asking the client to perform range-of-motion exercises is not necessary before the transfer and does not address the immediate safety concern of orthostatic hypotension.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with acute pancreatitis. Which finding is most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In acute pancreatitis, a low blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg is the most concerning finding as it may indicate hypovolemia or shock, which are critical conditions requiring immediate intervention. Pain radiating to the back is a common symptom of pancreatitis but is not as immediately life-threatening as hypotension. Elevated serum amylase levels and absent bowel sounds are typical findings in acute pancreatitis and may indicate pancreatic inflammation and gastrointestinal motility issues, respectively, but they are not as acutely concerning as hypotension.
A nurse is providing care to a 17-year-old client in the post-operative care unit (PACU) after an emergency appendectomy. Which finding is an early indication that the client is experiencing poor oxygenation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An increasing pulse rate can be an early sign of poor oxygenation as the body tries to compensate. Abnormal breath sounds (choice A) can indicate respiratory issues, but they may not always be an early sign of poor oxygenation. Cyanosis of the lips (choice B) is a late sign of inadequate oxygenation. A pulse oximeter reading of 92% (choice D) indicates mild hypoxemia but may not be considered an early indication of poor oxygenation.
A client with Parkinson's disease is being discharged. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Patients with Parkinson's disease should not stop taking their medication if they feel better, as doing so can worsen symptoms. It is crucial for patients to continue their prescribed medication regimen as directed by their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions that promote the well-being of a client with Parkinson's disease. Choice A emphasizes medication adherence, which is vital for symptom management. Choice B addresses a common issue in Parkinson's patients and shows an understanding of the importance of dietary management. Choice C highlights the significance of physical activity in maintaining mobility, which is essential for overall quality of life in Parkinson's disease.
When assessing the respiratory system for complications of immobility, what action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse when assessing the respiratory system for complications of immobility is to auscultate the entire lung region. This approach allows the nurse to identify any diminished breath sounds, crackles, or wheezes that may indicate respiratory issues. Inspecting chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle (Choice A) may not provide a comprehensive assessment of lung sounds. Focusing auscultation on the upper lung fields (Choice C) may miss important findings in the lower lung fields. Assessing the patient at least every 4 hours (Choice D) is important for monitoring overall patient condition but does not specifically address the assessment of respiratory complications related to immobility.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Droplet. Droplet precautions are required for infections that spread via droplets larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as pharyngeal diphtheria. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Airborne precautions are for diseases that spread through small particles in the air. Protective precautions are not a standard precautionary measure for specific infections like pharyngeal diphtheria.
A client is receiving discharge teaching about a new prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because clients taking digoxin should avoid foods high in potassium. High potassium levels can potentiate the effects of digoxin, leading to toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements regarding digoxin administration. Checking the pulse before taking the medication helps monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity. Avoiding taking antacids simultaneously prevents interactions that may reduce digoxin absorption. Taking the medication at the same time every day helps maintain a consistent blood level, ensuring optimal therapeutic effects.
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with swelling and pain in the left leg. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Measuring the circumference of the left leg is the most appropriate action for an LPN/LVN when assessing a client with a history of DVT and presenting with swelling and pain in the left leg. This measurement helps to assess the extent of swelling objectively and monitor changes in the client's condition. Applying warm compresses (Choice A) may worsen the condition by potentially promoting clot development. Elevating the left leg above the level of the heart (Choice B) is generally recommended for DVT to improve venous return, but measuring the circumference is more appropriate in this scenario. Administering pain medication (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue and should not be the initial action taken.
In a disaster at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body would be prioritized for treatment last because these extensive injuries may require immediate attention and resources. The other choices present serious conditions but are not as severe or life-threatening as the toddler's injuries. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have signs of increased intracranial pressure, requiring prompt evaluation. The preschooler's fractures, though serious, can be managed without immediate critical intervention. The school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair may have suffered burns but does not exhibit injuries as severe as the toddler's deep abrasions.
The caregiver is teaching parents about the diet for a 4-month-old infant with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration. In addition to oral rehydration fluids, the diet should include
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Formula or breast milk. In infants with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration, it is essential to continue feeding them with formula or breast milk along with oral rehydration fluids to provide adequate nutrition and maintain hydration. Option B, broth and tea, may not provide the necessary nutrients and electrolytes needed for the infant's recovery. Option C, rice cereal and apple juice, can be harsh on the digestive system and may exacerbate diarrhea. Option D, gelatin and ginger ale, do not provide the necessary nutrients and can worsen the condition due to the high sugar content in ginger ale.
A visitor comes to the nursing station and tells the nurse that a client and his relative had a fight, and that the client is now lying unconscious on the floor. What is the most important action the LPN/LVN needs to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most critical action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to ask security to ensure the room is safe. This step is crucial to prevent any further harm to the unconscious client or others. While it is important to assess the client's condition, ensuring safety takes precedence. Calling security from the room may expose the LPN/LVN to potential danger without confirming the safety of the environment first. Finding out if anyone else is in the room can wait until safety is established to avoid unnecessary risks.
When caring for a client with diarrhea due to Shigella, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct precaution for Shigella infection is to wash hands thoroughly before and after contact with the client. Shigella is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, so hand hygiene is crucial in preventing its spread. Wearing a surgical mask or face shield is not necessary for Shigella as it is not primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets. While wearing a gown and gloves is important for standard precautions, the key precaution specific to Shigella is proper hand hygiene.
A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client's medical record stating that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client's procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should take precautions to prevent latex exposure to the client due to his latex allergy. Wrapping monitoring cords with stockinette and securing them with non-latex tape helps to minimize the risk of latex contact with the client. Choice A is incorrect as sterilizing non-disposable items with ethylene oxide does not specifically address the avoidance of latex exposure. Choice C involves using latex ports on IV tubing, which can pose a risk of allergic reaction in a client with a latex allergy. Choice D suggests wearing latex gloves, even if hypoallergenic, which can still trigger a reaction in individuals with latex allergy. Therefore, the best option is to choose non-latex materials like stockinette and non-latex tape to prevent direct contact with latex.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is admitting a client. Which of the following information should the nurse document in the client's record first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Assessment. When admitting a client, the nurse should document assessment data first. This information is crucial as it provides a baseline for planning care and treatment. By documenting the assessment initially, the nurse can accurately identify the client's needs and prioritize care. Choice B, Plan of care, would be developed based on the assessment findings, so it should come after the initial assessment. Choices C and D, Client history and Medication list, are important but would typically be documented after the assessment to ensure that the most current and relevant information is captured in the client's record.
A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or other medications that increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that show understanding of warfarin therapy, such as the importance of avoiding foods high in vitamin K, taking medication consistently, and using a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
During an admission assessment of an older adult client, a nurse should identify which of the following findings as a potential indication of abuse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bruises on the arms in various stages of healing should be identified as a potential indication of abuse in an older adult. These bruises may suggest physical harm or neglect, which are concerning signs of abuse. Recent weight gain (Choice B) is not typically associated with abuse and can have various causes, such as dietary changes or health conditions. Complaints of joint pain (Choice C) are more likely related to musculoskeletal issues rather than abuse. Frequent visits to different providers (Choice D) could indicate seeking multiple opinions or healthcare needs and do not necessarily point to abuse.
A client is being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the most concerning laboratory value is an arterial pH of 7.20. An arterial pH of 7.20 indicates severe acidosis, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention. This pH level reflects a significant imbalance in the body's acid-base status, potentially leading to serious complications. High blood glucose levels (choice A) are expected in DKA but do not directly indicate the severity of acidosis. A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L (choice B) is low but not as immediately critical as a pH of 7.20. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L (choice D) is elevated, which can occur in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but it is not the most concerning value in this scenario.
A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after discharge?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Demonstrating the wound care procedure correctly indicates the client's readiness to independently manage wound care. This action shows practical understanding and application of the necessary skills. Choice A, asking relevant questions, is important but does not directly demonstrate the ability to perform the procedure. Choice B, stating the ability to complete the regimen, is a good intention but does not confirm practical competence. Choice D, having necessary supplies, is essential but does not ensure the client's ability to execute proper wound care.
A client with chronic renal failure selects scrambled eggs for breakfast. What action should the LPN/LVN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action is to commend the client for selecting a high biological value protein, as scrambled eggs provide a good protein source for clients with chronic renal failure. Protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health in these clients. Reminding the client to avoid protein is incorrect as it may lead to protein-energy malnutrition, which is a common concern in chronic renal failure. Suggesting orange juice for absorption is not relevant to the situation, as protein absorption is not a primary concern in this context. Encouraging the client to attend classes on dietary management of chronic renal failure is important for overall education but is not the immediate action needed in response to the client's breakfast choice.
A client has a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with hypothyroidism is to encourage frequent rest periods. Hypothyroidism often leads to fatigue, making rest essential for recovery and symptom management. Providing a high-calorie diet is not necessary unless the client has gained weight due to hypothyroidism. Restricting fluid intake is not indicated unless there are specific medical reasons for it. Increasing iodine intake is not recommended for primary hypothyroidism, as it is typically caused by autoimmune thyroiditis or other factors rather than iodine deficiency.
A client scheduled for abdominal surgery reports being worried. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Offering relaxation techniques addresses the client's immediate concern by providing a proactive approach to managing anxiety. It shows empathy and offers a practical solution. Requesting a social worker for meditation (Choice B) may not be the most direct response to the client's immediate worry. Attempting biofeedback (Choice C) may not be suitable without the client's interest or consent. Telling the client to think of something else (Choice D) dismisses the client's feelings and does not provide constructive support.
A client who is postoperative and has paralytic ileus is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with paralytic ileus, absent bowel sounds with distention are expected due to decreased or absent bowel motility. This is a key characteristic of paralytic ileus, where the bowel is unable to contract and move contents along the digestive tract. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice B) are more indicative of increased peristalsis, which is not typically seen in paralytic ileus. Normal bowel sounds (choice C) may not be present in a client with paralytic ileus. High-pitched bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with paralytic ileus. Therefore, the correct assessment finding in this scenario is absent bowel sounds with distention.
A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and census overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high fever is a significant indicator of infection or other serious conditions, making it the priority finding. Elevated temperature indicates an immediate concern for infection, which can quickly escalate and lead to severe complications if not addressed promptly. While heart rate, abdominal tenderness, and census overdue are important aspects to consider in the client's care, addressing the fever takes precedence due to its potential severity and implications for the client's health.
The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the LPN/LVN to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct method for transferring an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. This technique provides a stable and safe transfer by utilizing the stronger side of the client to support the transfer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side, assisting the client to a standing position and placing the right hand on the armrest, and having the client pivot to the left before sitting do not address the client's left-sided weakness and may increase the risk of falls or injuries.
A client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. The first step in the nursing process is assessment. By checking the IV tubing for obstruction, the nurse can assess and potentially correct any issues affecting the flow rate. This action may help to ensure that the prescribed infusion rate is maintained. Repositioning the client is not the priority at this stage as the issue seems related to the IV tubing. Documenting the intake or requesting a new prescription are not immediate actions needed to address the current situation with the IV fluid flow.
A charge nurse is discussing the responsibility of nurses caring for clients who have a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for clients with Clostridium difficile infection, it is important to prevent the transmission of spores. Having family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting helps reduce the spread of the infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because assigning the client to a room with a negative air-flow system, using alcohol-based hand sanitizer, and cleaning surfaces with a phenol solution are not specific measures targeted at preventing the transmission of Clostridium difficile spores.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of left-sided heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing gas exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening respiratory function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is a common finding in heart failure but may not be as acutely concerning as pulmonary congestion. Jugular vein distention is associated with right-sided heart failure, not left-sided heart failure. Hepatomegaly is often seen in liver conditions and right-sided heart failure, not specifically left-sided heart failure.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit has received change-of-shift report and will care for four clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - 'Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence.' This task falls within the scope of duties for an assistive personnel (AP). Updating care plans (Choice A), reinforcing teaching (Choice B), and applying sterile dressings (Choice D) typically require a higher level of training and expertise, making them tasks that should not be assigned to an AP. Assigning appropriate tasks based on skill levels ensures safe and effective patient care.
A client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant needs protective measures. What precaution should the nurse plan for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a client who has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, it is crucial to minimize exposure to potential sources of infection. Wearing a mask when outside the room, especially in areas with construction or other potential risks, helps protect the client's compromised immune system. Positive pressure airflow rooms are typically used for clients with airborne infections, not for those post-stem cell transplant. Restricting all visitors may contribute to the client's well-being, but it is not a direct protective measure against infection. While HEPA filters can be beneficial in maintaining air quality, wearing a mask when exposed to external risks is a more targeted and immediate protective measure in this scenario.
During assessment, what is a nurse monitoring when assessing body alignment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a nurse assesses body alignment, they are observing the relationship of one body part to another in various positions. This involves evaluating the positioning of joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles while a person is standing, sitting, or lying down. Choice B is incorrect because it refers more to the coordination between the musculoskeletal and nervous systems, which is not specifically related to body alignment assessment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the force opposing movement rather than body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as it defines the ability to move freely, which is not directly related to monitoring body alignment.
A client is being treated for pneumonia and is receiving intravenous antibiotics. The nurse notes that the client has developed a rash and is complaining of itching. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate initial nursing action when a client develops a rash and itching while receiving intravenous antibiotics is to discontinue the antibiotic infusion. This is crucial to prevent further allergic reactions. Administering diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice A) can be considered after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion. Applying a cool compress to the rash (Choice C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important but should come after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion to ensure the client's safety.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The absence of breath sounds on the affected side is a critical finding that may indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. This situation can lead to a shift of the mediastinum and impaired ventilation. Bubbling in the water seal chamber is an expected finding in a chest tube drainage system and indicates proper functioning. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour is a concern but does not require immediate reporting unless it continues at a high rate or is associated with other symptoms. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation and indicates the chest tube system is patent and functioning correctly.
Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged with home oxygen therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used with oxygen therapy as it can increase the risk of fire. Using petroleum jelly near oxygen can lead to a fire hazard. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements that indicate proper understanding of oxygen therapy safety measures. Choice A emphasizes the importance of keeping the oxygen tank upright to prevent leaks, choice C highlights the necessity of avoiding smoking to prevent exacerbation of COPD, and choice D encourages seeking medical help promptly in case of breathing difficulties.
A client needs to maintain a positive nitrogen balance for wound healing. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend as a good source of complete protein?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cheddar cheese is the correct answer as it is a good source of complete protein that contains all essential amino acids required for maintaining a positive nitrogen balance for wound healing. Complete proteins provide all essential amino acids needed by the body. White rice, apples, and green beans do not offer complete proteins like cheddar cheese, making them inadequate choices for this purpose.
Which anatomical location is associated with the deep tendon reflex known as the patellar reflex?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patellar reflex, also called the knee-jerk reflex, is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon just below the patella. This reflex involves the quadriceps muscle and the femoral nerve. The correct answer is 'A: Knee picture' because the patellar reflex is associated with the knee joint. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location involved in the patellar reflex.
A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.' Using a soft-bristled toothbrush is crucial as it helps prevent bleeding gums, which is a potential side effect of warfarin therapy. Option A about taking warfarin at the same time every day is a good practice but does not directly relate to preventing side effects. Option B suggesting an increase in green leafy vegetables can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects due to their vitamin K content. Option D advising to avoid alcohol is generally recommended but is not directly related to the specific side effects of warfarin.
A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.
A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, 'Help! I think he is having a heart attack!' The nurse responds to the scene and finds the unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an AED. The nurse's first action, after ensuring someone has called for EMS, should be to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a scenario where a person is unconscious and there is an indication of a possible heart attack, the immediate priority for the nurse should be to administer cardiac compressions. This action helps maintain circulation and ensures oxygenated blood reaches vital organs until the AED is available. Checking for a pulse or performing rescue breaths may delay essential circulation support, and attaching AED pads should follow the initial step of administering compressions to maximize the chances of a successful resuscitation.
A nurse on a surgical unit is receiving a client who had abdominal surgery from the postanesthesia care unit. Which of the following assessments should the nurse make first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the airway first. Ensuring a clear and patent airway is crucial to maintaining adequate oxygenation and ventilation post-surgery. Assessing the airway takes precedence over other assessments as a compromised airway can lead to hypoxia and respiratory distress. Checking blood pressure, the surgical site, or level of consciousness are important but are secondary to ensuring the airway is clear and the client can breathe effectively.
The client has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which symptom would be most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Shortness of breath is the most concerning symptom in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication where a blood clot travels to the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention. While pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected leg are common symptoms of DVT, shortness of breath suggests a more critical situation that necessitates urgent intervention.
During the physical assessment of a client, which technique should a nurse use when performing a Romberg's test?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a Romberg's test, the nurse assesses the client's balance. Having the client stand with arms at her sides and feet together is the correct technique. This position helps the nurse observe for swaying or loss of balance, indicating alterations in balance. Choices A and B are incorrect as they are not part of Romberg's test and do not assess balance. Choice D is also incorrect as direct percussion over the kidneys is not associated with a Romberg's test.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.
A child is injured on the school playground and appears to have a fractured leg. What action should the school nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the school nurse to take when a child is injured and appears to have a fractured leg is to assess the child and the extent of the injury. This initial assessment is crucial to determine the severity of the injury before proceeding with further interventions. Option A, calling for emergency transport, should only be done after assessing the extent of the injury. Option B, immobilizing the limb and joints, is important but should come after the initial assessment. Option D, applying cold compresses, is not recommended for suspected fractures as it can exacerbate swelling and pain.
The nurse observes an UAP positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using soft blankets to secure to the side rails provides better protection during a seizure as they are more secure and less likely to shift compared to pillows. This action helps prevent injury to the client by minimizing the risk of falling or hitting the side rails during a seizure. Choices B and C do not address the issue of using more secure materials. Choice D is inappropriate as it is important for the nurse to ensure the safety and well-being of the client by using the most appropriate protective measures.
When a client files a lawsuit against an LPN for malpractice, the client must prove that there is a link between the harm suffered and actions performed by the nurse that were negligent. This is known as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Proximate cause.' Proximate cause establishes the link between the harm suffered and the negligent actions performed by the nurse. In a malpractice lawsuit, proving proximate cause is essential to demonstrate that the nurse's actions directly led to the harm experienced by the client. Choice A, 'Evidence,' is incorrect as evidence is the information presented to support or refute a claim, not specifically the link between harm and negligence. Choice B, 'Tort discovery,' is incorrect as it does not specifically refer to establishing the link between harm and negligence. Choice D, 'Common cause,' is incorrect as it does not capture the legal concept of proximate cause in establishing liability in malpractice cases.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Is unable to swallow foods by mouth.' Tube feeding is prescribed when a client is unable to safely swallow food by mouth but has a functional gastrointestinal tract. Option B, 'Has a gastrointestinal obstruction,' is incorrect as tube feeding is not typically prescribed for this reason. Option C, 'Requires additional caloric intake to support healing,' is incorrect because tube feeding is specifically for clients who are unable to swallow. Option D, 'Is at risk for aspiration,' is also incorrect as tube feeding would not be the primary intervention for aspiration risk; other strategies to reduce aspiration risk would be implemented instead.
While auscultating the anterior chest of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, a nurse listens to the audio clip of breath sounds through her stethoscope. What type of breath sounds does the nurse hear?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Normal breath sounds. In the scenario described, the nurse hears normal bronchovesicular breath sounds, which are moderate in intensity and resemble blowing as air moves through the larger airways during inspiration and expiration. Crackles (choice A) are typically heard in conditions like heart failure or pneumonia and are not present in this case. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched, continuous sounds often associated with conditions like chronic bronchitis or bronchiectasis. Friction rub (choice C) is a grating sound usually heard in conditions like pleurisy or pericarditis, which is not the case here where normal breath sounds are heard.
What finding signifies that children have attained the stage of concrete operations according to Piaget?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Makes the moral judgment that 'stealing is wrong''. This finding signifies the attainment of the concrete operational stage according to Piaget. At this stage, children begin to understand rules and logic, including moral judgments. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically relate to concrete operational thinking. Choice B is incorrect as it refers more to the preoperational stage where children engage in symbolic thought. Choice D is also incorrect as it involves practical reasoning, which is not directly related to the concrete operational stage according to Piaget.
When preparing an injection for opioid medication, a nurse draws 1mL from a 2mL vial. What should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When drawing medication from a vial, especially for controlled substances like opioids, any wastage must be witnessed by another healthcare professional to ensure accuracy, prevent diversion, and maintain safety standards. This process is crucial for proper documentation and accountability. Recording the amount drawn on the Medication Administration Record (MAR) is important for tracking administered doses and preventing errors. Disposing of the remaining medication in a sharps container is not recommended as it does not address proper wastage documentation. Administering the entire vial of medication just to avoid wastage is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or overdose in the patient.
The nurse is assessing body alignment for a patient who is immobilized. Which patient position will the nurse use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing body alignment for an immobilized patient, the nurse should use the lateral position. This position helps in assessing alignment and preventing complications such as pressure ulcers. The supine position (Choice A) may not provide an accurate assessment of body alignment in an immobilized patient. While a lateral position with positioning supports (Choice C) may be used for comfort, it is not specifically for assessing body alignment. Using the supine position without a pillow under the patient's head (Choice D) is not ideal for assessing body alignment in an immobilized patient as it may not accurately reflect the patient's overall alignment.
A nurse is caring for two clients who report following the same religion. Which of the following information should the nurse consider when planning care for these clients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Religious beliefs can vary widely even among individuals of the same faith. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that the impact and interpretation of religious beliefs can differ from person to person. Choice A is incorrect as individuals within the same religion can have diverse feelings and interpretations. Choice B is incorrect because a shared religious background does not necessarily mean that individuals hold the same beliefs. Choice D is not the best course of action as discussing differences and commonalities in beliefs may not always be necessary or appropriate for providing care.
During a skin assessment, a healthcare professional is observing a group of clients. Which of the following lesions should the healthcare professional identify as vesicles?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vesicles are small fluid-filled blisters. Herpes simplex is an example of a vesicular lesion, characterized by small, fluid-filled blisters. Acne presents as comedones, papules, pustules, or nodules, not vesicles. Warts are caused by the human papillomavirus and appear as rough, raised growths. Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition that results in red, scaly patches on the skin, not vesicles.
A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.
A healthcare provider is preparing to provide chest physiotherapy for a client who has left lower lobe atelectasis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing the client in Trendelenburg's position is the appropriate action when providing chest physiotherapy for a client with left lower lobe atelectasis. This position helps mobilize secretions from the lower lobes of the lungs, aiding in their clearance. Trendelenburg's position promotes drainage from the affected area. Positioning the client in an upright sitting position (Choice B) would not facilitate the drainage of secretions from the affected lobe. Administering bronchodilators after the procedure (Choice C) is not directly related to chest physiotherapy and the treatment of atelectasis. Performing chest percussion and vibration while the client is lying flat (Choice D) may not effectively target the lower lobes where the atelectasis is located.
A client is receiving discharge instructions for using a walker. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because hiring someone to trim low-hanging branches over stairs ensures home safety and reflects an understanding of walker use. This action indicates the client's awareness of potential hazards and the importance of a safe environment for walker use. Choice B is incorrect as avoiding uneven surfaces is a general safety precaution but does not directly relate to walker use and does not demonstrate an understanding of the teaching. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker on stairs is not recommended due to safety concerns such as balance and fall risks. Choice D is incorrect as making no changes to the home environment may pose safety risks when using a walker, showing a lack of understanding regarding safety precautions needed for walker use.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for antihypertensive medication. Prior to administering the medication, the healthcare professional uses an electronic database to gather information about the medication and the effects it might have on this client. Which of the following components of critical thinking is the healthcare professional using when reviewing the medication information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Knowledge. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is utilizing knowledge by gathering and applying information about the medication. Choice B, Experience, is not the best option as the focus is on accessing information about the medication rather than personal experience. Choice C, Intuition, refers to a gut feeling or instinct, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice D, Competence, relates more to overall ability and proficiency rather than the specific act of seeking information.
A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling anxious, shaky, and weak. These findings are manifestations of which of the following complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Hypoglycemia. In diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia can lead to symptoms such as anxiety, shakiness, and weakness due to low blood sugar levels. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is high blood sugar levels and typically presents with symptoms like increased thirst and frequent urination. Ketoacidosis (choice C) is a serious complication of diabetes characterized by high levels of ketones in the blood, leading to symptoms such as fruity breath and rapid breathing. The Dawn phenomenon (choice D) refers to an abnormal early-morning increase in blood sugar levels without an associated hypoglycemia during the night.
A nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter for an adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When preparing to insert an IV catheter, stroking the extremity before insertion helps to visualize veins, making it easier to locate a suitable vein for catheter insertion. Choosing the most distal site on the extremity is correct because veins more distal are preferred for IV catheter insertion. Applying a cool compress to the extremity before insertion is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Placing the tourniquet below the proposed insertion site is incorrect; the tourniquet should be placed above the proposed insertion site to help engorge the veins for easier visualization and access.
A client with herpes zoster asks the nurse about using complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that this condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acupuncture is contraindicated for clients with herpes zoster due to the risk of introducing an open portal on the skin, which can increase the risk of infection. This therapy involves inserting needles into specific points on the body, potentially causing skin trauma and providing a route for the virus to spread. Biofeedback, aloe, and feverfew are not contraindicated for clients with herpes zoster and can be considered for pain management in this condition. Biofeedback involves using electronic devices to help individuals learn to control physiological processes, aloe is a plant known for its skin-soothing properties, and feverfew is an herb that has been used for pain relief.
When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.
The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.
A client reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to assess the quality of the pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing pain quality, asking if the pain is sharp or dull helps determine the nature of the pain. Sharp pain is often associated with acute conditions, while dull pain may indicate a chronic issue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the quality of the pain in terms of sharpness or dullness.
A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is transferring a client from a bed to a chair. To avoid a back injury, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct technique for transferring a client from a bed to a chair to avoid back injuries is to bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back. This position ensures that the nurse uses leg muscles rather than the back muscles for lifting, reducing the risk of injury. Placing the client's hands on the nurse's shoulders and the nurse's hands under the client's axillae provides additional support and stability during the transfer. Using a mechanical lift may be appropriate for certain situations but is not necessary for a simple bed-to-chair transfer. Twisting at the waist while holding the client can lead to back strain or injury. Asking for assistance from another staff member is a good practice, but proper body mechanics should still be followed to ensure safe client handling.
A nurse is giving a change-of-shift report about a client he admitted earlier that day who has pneumonia. Which of the following pieces of information is the priority for the nurse to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with pneumonia, assessing breath sounds is crucial as it provides immediate information about the client's respiratory status. Changes in breath sounds could indicate complications like fluid accumulation or worsening pneumonia. While the client's history of smoking (Choice B), current medication list (Choice C), and family history of respiratory illness (Choice D) are important factors to consider, they are not as urgent or directly related to the client's immediate condition as assessing breath sounds.
When planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing the client's arm in a dependent position is the correct action when inserting a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. This position helps veins dilate due to gravity, facilitating easier insertion of the IV catheter. Choice A is incorrect because catheters are typically inserted at a lower angle, around 10-30 degrees. Choice C is unnecessary unless excessive hair impedes the insertion process. Choice D is incorrect as veins in the hand are generally smaller and more prone to complications, making them less ideal for IV therapy in older adults.
The healthcare provider is reviewing the signed operative consent with a client who is admitted for the removal of a lipoma on the left leg. The client states that the permit should include...
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the best course of action is to inform the surgeon about the client's concern. This action ensures that the surgeon is aware of the client's specific request or concern related to the procedure. By directly involving the surgeon, the client's preferences or needs can be addressed effectively, potentially avoiding any misunderstanding or dissatisfaction. Choice A has been corrected to 'Notify the surgeon of the client's concern' as the operating room staff may not have the authority to make changes to the permit. Having the client sign a new surgical permit (Choice B) may not be necessary if the concern can be addressed by informing the surgeon, making Choice B less efficient. Adding the client's concern to the permit (Choice C) without consulting the surgeon may not align with the standard procedure and could lead to confusion or legal issues if the surgeon is not aware of the client's specific requests.
A nurse at a provider's office is discussing routine screenings with a 45-year-old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to proceed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Mammograms are recommended annually for women starting at age 40 or 45. This statement aligns with current guidelines for breast cancer screening in women without specific risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because colon cancer screenings are typically recommended at different intervals. Choice C is incorrect as Pap smears are usually done every 3-5 years based on age and risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because glucose testing is usually recommended more frequently, especially for individuals at risk for diabetes mellitus.
A postoperative client is reporting pain at a level of 2 on a scale of 0 to 10. What is an indication that the client understands pain management?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because understanding pain management involves considering non-pharmacological approaches, such as listening to music for relaxation and comfort. Choice B is incorrect as excessive sleep may not be an effective pain management strategy. Choice C is incorrect because pain medication may still be necessary even if pain levels are low. Choice D is not the best answer, as it simply states following the nurse's suggestions without demonstrating an understanding of personalized pain management techniques.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client's oculomotor nerve functions. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking the client's pupillary reaction to light is a key assessment to evaluate the oculomotor nerve function. The oculomotor nerve controls the pupil's constriction response to light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testing vision with a Snellen chart, identifying scents, or touching the cornea are not specific assessments for oculomotor nerve function.
A nurse manager is reviewing with nurses on the unit the care of a client who has had a seizure. Which of the following statements by a nurse requires further instruction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Going to the nurses' station for assistance during a seizure is inappropriate as immediate care is necessary. Placing the client on their side helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration. Noting the time the seizure begins is crucial for monitoring and documentation. Preparing to insert an airway may be necessary if the client's airway becomes compromised. Therefore, the nurse's statement about going to the nurses' station for assistance is the only incorrect response as it delays essential care.
A client with brain cancer is transferring to hospice care. The client's son tells the nurse, 'I don't know what to tell my dad if he asks how he is going to die.' Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choosing option D, 'Try to help your dad enjoy this time as much as he can,' is the most appropriate response by the nurse. This response shows empathy and compassion towards the client and their family during this difficult transition. The focus on supporting the client in enjoying their remaining time reflects a holistic approach to care. Options A, B, and C are not the best responses in this situation. Option A could lead to unnecessary details that might be overwhelming for the family. Option B shifts the responsibility to the social worker without providing immediate support. Option C deflects the son's concerns to another healthcare professional when emotional support is needed.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving IV therapy and reports pain in the arm, chills, and 'not feeling well.' The nurse notes warmth, edema, induration, and red streaking on the client's arm close to the IV insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Discontinuing the infusion is the first step in addressing potential complications such as phlebitis or infection. It is crucial to prevent further infusion-related damage by stopping the source of the issue. Obtaining a specimen for culture (Choice A) can be considered later to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) or administering analgesics (Choice C) may provide comfort but do not address the underlying issue of infection or phlebitis, which requires immediate intervention by discontinuing the infusion.
The LPN is caring for a client who has been placed in restraints. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial action for the nurse to take when caring for a client in restraints is to release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning. This practice helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and impaired circulation by ensuring adequate blood flow and preventing skin breakdown. Checking the client's circulation every hour (Choice A) is important, but releasing the restraints for repositioning takes precedence to prevent serious complications. While documenting the reason for restraints (Choice B) is essential for legal and documentation purposes, it is not as critical as providing necessary care to the client's physical well-being. Providing range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not address the immediate risks associated with prolonged restraint use.
A nurse receives a prescription for an antibiotic for a client with cellulitis. The nurse checks the client's medical record, discovers the client's allergy to the antibiotic, and calls the provider for a different prescription. Which of the following critical thinking attitudes did the nurse demonstrate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse demonstrated responsibility by recognizing the potential harm of administering an antibiotic the client is allergic to and taking the necessary steps to ensure the client's safety. Choice A, 'Fairness,' is not applicable in this scenario as it does not involve treating individuals equitably. Choice C, 'Risk-taking,' is incorrect as the nurse's actions aimed to minimize risks rather than taking them. Choice D, 'Creativity,' is not the best fit as the nurse's actions focused on following established protocols and ensuring patient safety rather than thinking innovatively.
A client is on bed rest. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent complications associated with prolonged bed rest, encouraging the client to perform antiembolic exercises every 2 hours is essential. These exercises help promote circulation and prevent blood clots. Instructing the client to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours is beneficial for respiratory function, but it is not as critical as antiembolic exercises. Repositioning the client every 4 hours helps prevent pressure ulcers and maintain skin integrity. Restricting fluid intake is not recommended, as hydration is important for overall health and well-being, especially for clients on bed rest.
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