HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. Which task could the nurse safely delegate to the UAP?
- A. Oral feeding of a two-year-old child after application of a hip spica cast
- B. Assessment of the placement and patency of an NG tube
- C. Participation in staff rounds to record notes regarding client goals
- D. Evaluation of a client's incisional pain following narcotic administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a stable child is a task that can be safely delegated to a UAP. This task does not require nursing assessment or clinical judgment. Choice B involves assessment, which requires the nurse's clinical judgment. Choice C involves recording client goals during staff rounds, which may require interpretation and understanding of the goals set. Choice D involves evaluating a client's pain following medication administration, which requires assessment and clinical judgment by a nurse.
2. The PN notes that a UAP is ambulating a male client who had a stroke and has right-sided weakness. The UAP is walking on the client's left side. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Instruct the UAP to walk on the client's affected side
- B. Take over the ambulation and provide guidance to the UAP immediately
- C. Provide the client with an assistive device, such as a cane or walker
- D. Tell the UAP to take the client back to his room
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take is to instruct the UAP to walk on the client’s affected side. This is essential to provide the necessary support and prevent falls, especially when the client has weakness on one side due to a stroke. Walking on the affected side helps provide stability and assistance to the weaker side. Choice B is incorrect because it would be more appropriate for the PN to provide immediate guidance and correct the UAP's positioning rather than taking over the task completely. Choice C is incorrect because while assistive devices may be beneficial, the immediate concern is the UAP's positioning during ambulation, not providing the client with an assistive device. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication to return the client to his room unless it is necessary for his safety or well-being.
3. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?
- A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
- B. To promote wound healing
- C. To reduce postoperative pain
- D. To maintain body temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.
4. After administering pantoprazole to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that the medication is producing the desired effect?
- A. After eating my meal, I did not experience any heartburn
- B. I have a great appetite and am feeling really hungry
- C. I should increase the amount of vitamin C in my diet
- D. While eating, I had no difficulty swallowing any of the foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pantoprazole reduces stomach acid production, thus preventing the occurrence of heartburn after meals, which is a common symptom of GERD. Choice B is incorrect because an increased appetite and hunger are not indicators of the desired effect of pantoprazole. Choice C is unrelated to the medication's effect on GERD symptoms. Choice D is also incorrect because the absence of difficulty swallowing is not a specific indicator of pantoprazole's effectiveness in treating GERD.
5. A client who had a thyroidectomy 24 hours ago reports tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the client’s calcium levels.
- B. Administer a dose of calcium gluconate.
- C. Assess the client's incision site for bleeding.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips can indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy due to accidental damage to the parathyroid glands. Checking calcium levels is crucial as it helps in diagnosing hypocalcemia accurately. Administering calcium without knowing the actual calcium levels can be dangerous. Assessing the incision site for bleeding is important but not the priority in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after assessing and managing the immediate concern of hypocalcemia.
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