Free HESI LPN Exit practice for HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet (HESI LPN). Answer 103 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress trac
Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics that the nurse should monitor for in patients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Constipation is a common side effect of opioid analgesics due to the slowing of gastrointestinal motility. Opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased peristalsis and increased water absorption, resulting in constipation. Monitoring for constipation is crucial to prevent discomfort or complications like bowel obstruction. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect of opioid analgesics. Hypertension (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not typically associated with opioid use.
Rehabilitation after illness is classified under which level of healthcare?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Rehabilitation after illness is classified as tertiary care. Tertiary care aims to help patients recover from illness, injuries, or disabilities, and restore their functionality. Primary care involves preventive measures and early disease detection, while secondary care focuses on diagnosis and treatment of specific conditions. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the specialized nature of rehabilitation in healthcare.
A client confides to the nurse that the client has been substituting herbal supplements for high blood pressure instead of the prescribed medication. How should the nurse respond first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to ask the client's reason for choosing to take herbs instead of prescribed medication. Understanding the client's rationale for using herbal supplements allows the nurse to explore any misconceptions and provide education on the importance of the prescribed medication. Choice B is incorrect because simply reinforcing the prescription does not address the client's concerns or reasons for using herbal supplements. Choice C does not directly address the immediate concern of the client substituting medication with herbal supplements. Choice D focuses on the risks of not taking the prescribed medication rather than herbal supplements, which is not the most appropriate initial response.
The UAP is caring for a male resident of a long-term care facility who has an external urinary catheter. Which finding should the PN instruct the UAP to report immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Swollen and discolored penile shaft. Swelling and discoloration of the penile shaft may indicate an infection or other complications requiring immediate attention. Prompt reporting allows for timely intervention to prevent further harm to the client. Choice B is incorrect because the prepuce extending over the head of the penis is not an urgent issue. Choice C, leaking urine around the catheter, may require intervention but is not as urgent as the swelling and discoloration described in choice A. Choice D, moist and excoriated perineal skin folds, also needs attention but is not as concerning as the potential complications indicated by the findings in choice A.
When a small fire breaks out in the kitchen of a long-term care facility, which task is most important for the nurse to perform instead of assigning to a UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a fire emergency in a long-term care facility, the most critical task for the nurse is to identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident. This task requires quick decision-making and critical thinking, which are essential in ensuring the safety and well-being of the residents. Closing the doors to residents' rooms (Choice A) can help contain the fire but should not be the nurse's top priority. While offering comfort and reassurance (Choice B) is important, the immediate focus should be on ensuring safe evacuation. Providing blankets (Choice D) is also important but comes after ensuring safe transportation and evacuation plans are in place.
When assisting an older male client recovering from a stroke to ambulate with a cane, where should the nurse place the cane in relation to the client's body?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'On the opposite side of the affected extremity.' Placing the cane on the opposite side of the affected extremity provides maximum support and stability during ambulation for a client recovering from a stroke. This positioning helps to offload weight from the affected side and improves balance. Choice A is incorrect because placing the cane in front of the body can lead to incorrect weight distribution and instability. Choice C is incorrect as placing the cane one foot away from the body may not provide adequate support and can compromise balance. Choice D is incorrect as placing the cane on the same side as the affected extremity does not offer the necessary balance and support needed for safe ambulation.
During a routine prenatal visit at the antepartal clinic, a multipara at 35-weeks gestation presents with 2+ edema of the ankles and feet. Which additional information should the PN report to the RN?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Blood pressure is the most critical information to report to the RN in this scenario. The presence of edema, along with high blood pressure, can be indicative of preeclampsia, a severe condition in pregnancy. Monitoring blood pressure is essential for assessing the patient's condition and taking appropriate actions if necessary. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent in this situation. The due date, gravida, and parity are important for overall assessment but do not address the immediate concern of potential preeclampsia. Fundal height is used to assess fetal growth and position but is not the priority when edema and high blood pressure are present.
The PN is caring for a client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard. Which nursing problem should the PN document in the medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, the repetition of heard words, is associated with disturbed thought processes, which are commonly seen in schizophrenia. Altered thought processes (Choice A) is a generic term and does not specifically address the behavior of repeating words. Impaired social interaction (Choice B) is not the primary concern when a client repeats the last words heard. Risk for self-directed violence (Choice C) is not directly related to the behavior of repeating words but focuses on the potential harm the client may cause to themselves.
After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, what is the most important instruction the nurse should give the client regarding post-operative care at home?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring the incision sites for signs of infection is crucial after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Infections can lead to serious complications if not detected early. While avoiding heavy lifting and following a low-fat diet are important aspects of recovery, monitoring for infection takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate post-operative well-being. Therefore, option C is the correct answer as it addresses the most critical aspect of post-operative care.
Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing a pressure ulcer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Immobility is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers because it leads to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, reducing blood flow and leading to tissue breakdown. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet can actually aid in wound healing and tissue repair. Frequent repositioning helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Active range of motion exercises can improve circulation and prevent muscle atrophy, thereby reducing the risk of pressure ulcers.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to increase the risk of a medication error?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Errors in the calculation of medication dosages are a significant risk factor for medication errors. When dosage calculations are incorrect, it can lead to administering the wrong amount of medication, posing serious harm to the patient. Avoiding abbreviations for medications, barcoding medication orders, and utilizing unit dose dispensers are all strategies aimed at reducing medication errors by enhancing accuracy and safety. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are practices that help decrease, rather than increase, the risk of medication errors.
A dispersion consists of a solute dispersed through a dispersing vehicle. Which of the following dispersions is a liquid for topical application that contains insoluble solids or liquids?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, 'Lotion.' A lotion is a liquid dispersion that contains insoluble solids or liquids for topical application. Ointments are more semi-solid and occlusive, pastes are thicker and contain higher concentrations of solids, and gels have a jelly-like consistency due to their three-dimensional network structure. Therefore, among the options, a lotion is the most suitable choice for containing insoluble solids or liquids for topical application.
At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
An adult client is undergoing weekly external radiation treatments for breast cancer and reports increasing fatigue. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when a client undergoing radiation treatment for breast cancer reports increasing fatigue is to reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep. Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy, and adequate rest and sleep can help manage this symptom. Notifying the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately (choice A) is not necessary for increasing fatigue, as it is expected during radiation therapy. Offering to reschedule the treatment for the following week (choice B) is not the best initial action for managing fatigue. Planning to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes (choice C) is unnecessary and not directly related to managing fatigue caused by radiation therapy.
When caring for a client with colostomy, which topical skin preparation should the PN apply around the stoma?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Stomadhesive.' Stomadhesive is a protective barrier used around the stoma to prevent skin irritation and to secure the colostomy bag. This preparation helps to maintain skin integrity and prevent complications such as skin breakdown. Antiseptic cream (Choice A) is not typically used around the stoma as it can irritate the skin. Petroleum jelly (Choice B) is also not recommended as it can interfere with the adhesive properties of the colostomy appliance. Cornstarch (Choice C) is not suitable for application around the stoma as it can promote moisture and lead to skin irritation.
Before administering a scheduled dose of insulin to a 10-year-old child who is learning diabetic self-care, which information is most important for the PN to ask the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Did the child perform a finger stick?' Before administering insulin, it is crucial to check the child's blood glucose level to prevent hypoglycemia. Performing a finger stick blood glucose test provides essential information on the current blood sugar level. Choice A ('How much exercise did the child have today?') is not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels directly. Choice C ('When did the child last urinate?') is not directly related to the immediate need for insulin administration. Choice D ('Has the child eaten recently?') is important but not as crucial as knowing the current blood glucose level.
Which task could the PN safely delegate to the UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a child is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). This task involves providing basic care and does not require specialized nursing skills. Choices B, C, and D involve assessments, recording client goals, and evaluating pain, respectively, which all require specialized nursing knowledge, judgment, and skills. These tasks are not within the scope of practice for a UAP.
A client post-splenectomy is at risk for infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Wash hands frequently and practice good hygiene.' After a splenectomy, the client is at an increased risk of infection due to the role of the spleen in the immune system. Maintaining good hand hygiene, such as frequent handwashing, is crucial to prevent infections. While taking prescribed antibiotics as directed (Choice A) is important if prescribed, it is not the most crucial preventive measure in this scenario. Avoiding crowded places and sick people (Choice B) can help reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens but may not always be feasible. Keeping the surgical site clean and dry (Choice D) is important for wound care but is not the primary preventive measure to protect against infections in a post-splenectomy client.
What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells is to transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and return carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the body's tissues. Choice B is incorrect because hemoglobin is not involved in protecting the body from infections. Choice C is incorrect because blood clotting is mainly facilitated by platelets and clotting factors, not hemoglobin. Choice D is incorrect because the regulation of body temperature is mainly controlled by processes like sweating and shivering, not by hemoglobin.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for managing delirium in an elderly patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging family presence is the most appropriate intervention for managing delirium in elderly patients. This intervention provides orientation, reassurance, and comfort, which can help reduce confusion and anxiety, thus aiding in managing delirium. Keeping the room brightly lit (Choice A) may worsen delirium as it can disrupt the patient's sleep-wake cycle. Administering sedatives (Choice B) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary due to the risk of worsening delirium. Restricting fluids (Choice D) is not a recommended intervention for managing delirium, as hydration is important for overall patient well-being.
Which condition is most commonly associated with a "bull's eye" rash?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Lyme disease. The "bull's eye" rash, or erythema migrans, is a hallmark of early Lyme disease, caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Choice B, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, presents with a different type of rash. Choice C, Syphilis, typically presents with a painless ulcer and rash but not a "bull's eye" rash. Choice D, Toxoplasmosis, does not typically present with a "bull's eye" rash.
At one minute after birth, an infant is crying, has a heart rate of 140, has acrocyanosis, resists the suction catheter, and keeps his arms extended and his legs flexed. What is the Apgar score?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a heart rate over 100 (2 points), is crying (2 points indicating good respiratory effort), resists the catheter (2 points for good reflex irritability), but has acrocyanosis (partial point deduction of 1). Thus, the Apgar score at one minute after birth would be 8. Choice A is incorrect as the given signs indicate a higher score. Choice B is incorrect as the signs described support a score above 6. Choice D is incorrect as it represents a perfect score which is not the case here due to acrocyanosis.
The nurse is assisting with the admission of a young adult female Korean exchange student with acute abdominal pain. Although the client has been able to easily answer questions, when asked about sexual activity, she looks away. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Observing the client's response to another question is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By doing so, the nurse can assess whether the client's discomfort is due to cultural sensitivity or a misunderstanding. This approach allows the nurse to proceed with sensitivity and respect, ensuring effective communication. Option A is incorrect because omitting the section of the assessment form may result in missing crucial information relevant to the client's condition. Option B jumps to assumptions about a language barrier without confirming it first. Option C focuses on rewording the question without addressing the underlying issue causing the client's discomfort, which may not necessarily be due to a lack of understanding.
An 8-year-old is placed in 90-90 traction for a fractured femur resulting from a motor vehicle collision. Which finding requires further action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. In 90-90 traction, the weights should hang freely and not touch the foot of the bed to maintain proper traction and bone alignment. Option A is not necessarily a concern as bowel movements can be influenced by various factors, including diet changes and pain medication. Option B indicates good caregiver involvement, promoting comfort and preventing complications. Option D demonstrates neurovascular function, which is a positive finding. Therefore, the weights touching the foot of the bed is the finding that requires immediate attention to ensure the effectiveness of the traction.
While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the nurse observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Document that the fistula is intact. The palpable buzzing sensation (known as a thrill) over the AV fistula indicates proper functioning. It is essential for the nurse to document this finding to ensure ongoing monitoring of the fistula's status. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication to loosen the dressing. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not associated with the palpable buzzing sensation of a thrill. Choice D is incorrect as applying pressure over the site is not necessary for this situation.
In obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement, what action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action when obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement is to instruct the client to lie supine. This allows for establishing a baseline measurement of vital signs before any positional changes. Counting the client's radial pulse (Choice A) is a step that follows after the initial supine position to assess changes in pulse rate. Applying a blood pressure cuff (Choice B) and assisting the client to stand upright (Choice D) are actions that come later in the process after the baseline measurements are obtained in the supine position.
The HCP gives a pregnant woman a prescription for one prenatal vitamin with iron daily and tells her that she needs to increase foods in her diet because her hemoglobin is 8.2 grams/dL. When a list of iron-rich foods is given to the client, she tells the PN that she is a vegetarian and does not eat anything that "bleeds." Which instruction should the PN provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vegetarians can increase their iron intake through plant-based sources such as green leafy vegetables, oatmeal, and legumes, which are rich in iron.
While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.
A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is concerned about the continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What should the nurse explain to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube system indicates an air leak. An air leak can prevent the lung from fully re-expanding and may lead to complications like a recurrent pneumothorax. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate and address the air leak promptly. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and does not indicate lung expansion. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should first assess and then report the issue to the healthcare provider.
Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. It helps ensure that the heparin levels are within the desired range to prevent either clotting or excessive bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but does not directly assess heparin's therapeutic effect. Prothrombin time (PT) (B) and International normalized ratio (INR) (D) are used to monitor patients on warfarin, not heparin therapy.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of calcium and phosphate in the blood?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Parathyroid hormone is the correct answer. It regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the blood by increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and releasing calcium from bones. Insulin is involved in glucose metabolism, not calcium and phosphate regulation. Cortisol is a stress hormone and is not primarily responsible for regulating calcium and phosphate levels. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone that primarily regulates metabolism, not calcium and phosphate in the blood.
You are teaching students about how hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics) are used to treat intracranial pressure. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of hyperosmotic agents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hyperosmotic agents primarily work by reducing cerebral edema, dehydrating the brain, and drawing fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma. However, they do not have a direct effect on reducing brain metabolism or systemic blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is correct as hyperosmotic agents do help in reducing cerebral edema. Choice C is accurate as hyperosmotic agents dehydrate the brain. Choice D is also true as these agents draw fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma.
To accommodate a patient who is an Orthodox Jew, you would assure that her diet does not include which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Orthodox Jewish dietary laws prohibit mixing meat and dairy in the same meal, so to accommodate an Orthodox Jew, you should ensure that their diet does not include any combination of meat and milk at the same meal. Choices B, C, and D are not prohibited in a kosher diet. Fish with scales, including salmon, are typically kosher, and grape juice is also permissible under kosher guidelines if certified. Therefore, options B, C, and D are acceptable in an Orthodox Jewish diet, while option A contradicts their dietary laws.
The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.
The UAP reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reason for refusal is crucial in identifying and addressing any underlying concerns or issues that may be contributing to the refusal. This approach promotes open communication, client-centered care, and helps in developing a plan of care that is tailored to the client's needs and preferences. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the root cause of the refusal and may not effectively resolve the situation.
The single mother of a child with a head injury is sitting at the child's bedside crying when the PN enters the room. The mother states, 'Why did this happen to my child? I just can't cope with this.' How should the PN respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Expressing empathy and acknowledging the mother's feelings helps in providing emotional support during a difficult time. This response validates her emotions and offers a comforting presence. Choice A is not appropriate as it focuses on gathering information rather than addressing the mother's emotional distress. Choice B may come off as dismissive of the mother's feelings and oversimplifies the complexity of the situation. Choice D shifts the responsibility to someone else instead of offering immediate support and comfort.
A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn for the first time after delivery reports nipple pain when the baby sucks. Based on this client problem, which action should the PN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Proper latch, including all the areolar tissue in the infant's mouth, is essential to prevent nipple pain and ensure effective breastfeeding. Option A is correct because ensuring that all the areolar tissue of the nipple is in the infant's mouth helps achieve a good latch, reducing nipple pain. Option B is incorrect as repositioning the infant may not address the root cause of the pain related to latch issues. Option C is incorrect because while checking for engorgement and nipple issues is important, it does not directly address the latch concern causing the pain. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers; a warm compress can help with pain associated with engorgement, but it does not address latch issues.
A client who is at full-term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg. Which intervention should the PN implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During labor, muscle cramps are common due to prolonged muscle tension. The correct intervention to alleviate a cramp in the leg is to extend the leg and flex the foot. This action helps relieve the muscle spasm by stretching and contracting the muscles. Massaging the calf and foot (Choice A) may not be as effective in relieving the cramp as extending and flexing the leg. Elevating the leg above the heart (Choice B) is not necessary and may not directly address the cramp. Checking the pedal pulse (Choice C) is important for assessing circulation, but it does not directly address the muscle cramp.
A client with a recent total knee replacement is scheduled for physical therapy. The client refuses to participate, stating that the pain is too intense. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering pain medication before physical therapy helps manage the pain, making it easier for the client to participate in the necessary exercises to improve recovery and prevent complications such as joint stiffness. Choice B is not the first step as addressing the pain should take precedence. Choice C is important but should come after managing the pain to facilitate participation. Choice D involves another healthcare provider and is not the immediate action needed in this situation.
Which of the following best describes the role of insulin in the body?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose into cells. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into cells, where it can be used for energy production. Choice A is incorrect because insulin doesn't break down glucose but rather helps cells take up glucose. Choice C is incorrect as insulin does not directly convert glucose into fat; excess glucose is stored as fat by other processes. Choice D is incorrect as insulin does not increase the breakdown of protein into amino acids; its primary role is in glucose metabolism.
Which type of cell is responsible for producing antibodies in the immune system?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: B lymphocytes. B lymphocytes (B cells) are a crucial part of the adaptive immune system. They produce antibodies, which are proteins that specifically target and neutralize pathogens such as bacteria and viruses. T lymphocytes (choice B) are involved in cell-mediated immunity rather than antibody production. Macrophages (choice C) are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens but do not produce antibodies. Neutrophils (choice D) are a type of white blood cell that primarily function in the innate immune response by phagocytosing pathogens.
A client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, 'Which is the most common type of cancer in women?' The nurse replies that it is breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the most deaths in women?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related deaths in women, surpassing even breast cancer. While breast cancer is more common, it is often detected early enough for effective treatment. Lung cancer, on the other hand, tends to be diagnosed at later stages, leading to higher mortality rates. Brain cancer and colon and rectal cancer are not the leading causes of cancer-related deaths in women, making them incorrect choices.
Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
During the last 30 days, an elderly client has exhibited a progressively decreasing appetite, is spending increasing amounts of daytime hours in bed, and refuses to participate in planned daytime activities. Which action should the practical nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The practical nurse should record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse. These behaviors may indicate a serious underlying condition such as depression or physical illness. By reporting to the charge nurse, the client can receive appropriate assessment and intervention promptly. Choice B is incorrect as family visits may not address the root cause of the symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and may not be effective in addressing the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because withholding medications without proper assessment and guidance can be harmful to the client's health.
The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
The PN is caring for a client who had an acute brain attack with resulting expressive aphasia and urinary incontinence. To ensure care for the client, which task should the PN delegate to the UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assisting the client to the bedside commode is an appropriate task for the UAP as it involves basic patient care and mobility assistance, which are within the UAP's scope of practice. Options A and B involve communication techniques and documentation, which are more appropriate for licensed nursing staff. Option D involves establishing a bladder training schedule, which requires assessment and planning skills beyond the UAP's role.
Based on the computer documentation in the EMR, which action should the PN implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The rubella vaccine is crucial for preventing rubella infection, which can cause severe congenital disabilities if contracted during pregnancy. Administering the vaccine subcutaneously is the correct action based on EMR documentation. Observing breastfeeding, calling the nursery for blood type results, and administering pain medication are not indicated by the EMR documentation and are not relevant to the situation described in the question.
The UAP reports to the PN that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. Which action is best for the PN to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best action for the PN to take when a client refuses to bathe is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusing a bath is crucial as it helps to address any underlying issues, such as fear, discomfort, or physical limitations. By communicating directly with the client, the PN can provide appropriate care tailored to the client's needs. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the root cause of the refusal and may not effectively resolve the issue.
A client is post-operative day two from a total hip arthroplasty. The nurse notices the surgical wound is red and warm to the touch. What is the most appropriate action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action when a nurse notices redness and warmth at the surgical wound post total hip arthroplasty is to notify the healthcare provider. These signs may indicate an infection, and prompt evaluation by the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment. Applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection. Monitoring the client's temperature (Choice B) is important but not the priority when signs of infection are present. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor (Choice C) is necessary but should be accompanied by notifying the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention.
What is the correct order of steps in the nursing process?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct order in the nursing process is Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation. Assessment involves gathering information about the patient, Diagnosis is identifying the problem, Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, Implementation is carrying out the plan, and Evaluation is assessing the outcomes. Choices B, C, and D have the steps in the incorrect order, not following the standard nursing process framework. Therefore, the correct answer is option A.
Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics that the nurse should monitor for in patients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Constipation is a common side effect of opioid analgesics due to the slowing of gastrointestinal motility. Opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased peristalsis and increased water absorption, resulting in constipation. Monitoring for constipation is crucial to prevent discomfort or complications like bowel obstruction. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect of opioid analgesics. Hypertension (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not typically associated with opioid use.
Rehabilitation after illness is classified under which level of healthcare?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Rehabilitation after illness is classified as tertiary care. Tertiary care aims to help patients recover from illness, injuries, or disabilities, and restore their functionality. Primary care involves preventive measures and early disease detection, while secondary care focuses on diagnosis and treatment of specific conditions. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the specialized nature of rehabilitation in healthcare.
A client confides to the nurse that the client has been substituting herbal supplements for high blood pressure instead of the prescribed medication. How should the nurse respond first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to ask the client's reason for choosing to take herbs instead of prescribed medication. Understanding the client's rationale for using herbal supplements allows the nurse to explore any misconceptions and provide education on the importance of the prescribed medication. Choice B is incorrect because simply reinforcing the prescription does not address the client's concerns or reasons for using herbal supplements. Choice C does not directly address the immediate concern of the client substituting medication with herbal supplements. Choice D focuses on the risks of not taking the prescribed medication rather than herbal supplements, which is not the most appropriate initial response.
The UAP is caring for a male resident of a long-term care facility who has an external urinary catheter. Which finding should the PN instruct the UAP to report immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Swollen and discolored penile shaft. Swelling and discoloration of the penile shaft may indicate an infection or other complications requiring immediate attention. Prompt reporting allows for timely intervention to prevent further harm to the client. Choice B is incorrect because the prepuce extending over the head of the penis is not an urgent issue. Choice C, leaking urine around the catheter, may require intervention but is not as urgent as the swelling and discoloration described in choice A. Choice D, moist and excoriated perineal skin folds, also needs attention but is not as concerning as the potential complications indicated by the findings in choice A.
When a small fire breaks out in the kitchen of a long-term care facility, which task is most important for the nurse to perform instead of assigning to a UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a fire emergency in a long-term care facility, the most critical task for the nurse is to identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident. This task requires quick decision-making and critical thinking, which are essential in ensuring the safety and well-being of the residents. Closing the doors to residents' rooms (Choice A) can help contain the fire but should not be the nurse's top priority. While offering comfort and reassurance (Choice B) is important, the immediate focus should be on ensuring safe evacuation. Providing blankets (Choice D) is also important but comes after ensuring safe transportation and evacuation plans are in place.
When assisting an older male client recovering from a stroke to ambulate with a cane, where should the nurse place the cane in relation to the client's body?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'On the opposite side of the affected extremity.' Placing the cane on the opposite side of the affected extremity provides maximum support and stability during ambulation for a client recovering from a stroke. This positioning helps to offload weight from the affected side and improves balance. Choice A is incorrect because placing the cane in front of the body can lead to incorrect weight distribution and instability. Choice C is incorrect as placing the cane one foot away from the body may not provide adequate support and can compromise balance. Choice D is incorrect as placing the cane on the same side as the affected extremity does not offer the necessary balance and support needed for safe ambulation.
During a routine prenatal visit at the antepartal clinic, a multipara at 35-weeks gestation presents with 2+ edema of the ankles and feet. Which additional information should the PN report to the RN?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Blood pressure is the most critical information to report to the RN in this scenario. The presence of edema, along with high blood pressure, can be indicative of preeclampsia, a severe condition in pregnancy. Monitoring blood pressure is essential for assessing the patient's condition and taking appropriate actions if necessary. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent in this situation. The due date, gravida, and parity are important for overall assessment but do not address the immediate concern of potential preeclampsia. Fundal height is used to assess fetal growth and position but is not the priority when edema and high blood pressure are present.
The PN is caring for a client with schizophrenia who continues to repeat the last words heard. Which nursing problem should the PN document in the medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Disturbed thought processes. Echolalia, the repetition of heard words, is associated with disturbed thought processes, which are commonly seen in schizophrenia. Altered thought processes (Choice A) is a generic term and does not specifically address the behavior of repeating words. Impaired social interaction (Choice B) is not the primary concern when a client repeats the last words heard. Risk for self-directed violence (Choice C) is not directly related to the behavior of repeating words but focuses on the potential harm the client may cause to themselves.
After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, what is the most important instruction the nurse should give the client regarding post-operative care at home?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring the incision sites for signs of infection is crucial after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Infections can lead to serious complications if not detected early. While avoiding heavy lifting and following a low-fat diet are important aspects of recovery, monitoring for infection takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate post-operative well-being. Therefore, option C is the correct answer as it addresses the most critical aspect of post-operative care.
Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing a pressure ulcer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Immobility is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers because it leads to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, reducing blood flow and leading to tissue breakdown. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet can actually aid in wound healing and tissue repair. Frequent repositioning helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Active range of motion exercises can improve circulation and prevent muscle atrophy, thereby reducing the risk of pressure ulcers.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to increase the risk of a medication error?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Errors in the calculation of medication dosages are a significant risk factor for medication errors. When dosage calculations are incorrect, it can lead to administering the wrong amount of medication, posing serious harm to the patient. Avoiding abbreviations for medications, barcoding medication orders, and utilizing unit dose dispensers are all strategies aimed at reducing medication errors by enhancing accuracy and safety. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are practices that help decrease, rather than increase, the risk of medication errors.
A dispersion consists of a solute dispersed through a dispersing vehicle. Which of the following dispersions is a liquid for topical application that contains insoluble solids or liquids?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, 'Lotion.' A lotion is a liquid dispersion that contains insoluble solids or liquids for topical application. Ointments are more semi-solid and occlusive, pastes are thicker and contain higher concentrations of solids, and gels have a jelly-like consistency due to their three-dimensional network structure. Therefore, among the options, a lotion is the most suitable choice for containing insoluble solids or liquids for topical application.
At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
An adult client is undergoing weekly external radiation treatments for breast cancer and reports increasing fatigue. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when a client undergoing radiation treatment for breast cancer reports increasing fatigue is to reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep. Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy, and adequate rest and sleep can help manage this symptom. Notifying the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately (choice A) is not necessary for increasing fatigue, as it is expected during radiation therapy. Offering to reschedule the treatment for the following week (choice B) is not the best initial action for managing fatigue. Planning to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes (choice C) is unnecessary and not directly related to managing fatigue caused by radiation therapy.
When caring for a client with colostomy, which topical skin preparation should the PN apply around the stoma?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Stomadhesive.' Stomadhesive is a protective barrier used around the stoma to prevent skin irritation and to secure the colostomy bag. This preparation helps to maintain skin integrity and prevent complications such as skin breakdown. Antiseptic cream (Choice A) is not typically used around the stoma as it can irritate the skin. Petroleum jelly (Choice B) is also not recommended as it can interfere with the adhesive properties of the colostomy appliance. Cornstarch (Choice C) is not suitable for application around the stoma as it can promote moisture and lead to skin irritation.
Before administering a scheduled dose of insulin to a 10-year-old child who is learning diabetic self-care, which information is most important for the PN to ask the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Did the child perform a finger stick?' Before administering insulin, it is crucial to check the child's blood glucose level to prevent hypoglycemia. Performing a finger stick blood glucose test provides essential information on the current blood sugar level. Choice A ('How much exercise did the child have today?') is not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels directly. Choice C ('When did the child last urinate?') is not directly related to the immediate need for insulin administration. Choice D ('Has the child eaten recently?') is important but not as crucial as knowing the current blood glucose level.
Which task could the PN safely delegate to the UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a child is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). This task involves providing basic care and does not require specialized nursing skills. Choices B, C, and D involve assessments, recording client goals, and evaluating pain, respectively, which all require specialized nursing knowledge, judgment, and skills. These tasks are not within the scope of practice for a UAP.
A client post-splenectomy is at risk for infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Wash hands frequently and practice good hygiene.' After a splenectomy, the client is at an increased risk of infection due to the role of the spleen in the immune system. Maintaining good hand hygiene, such as frequent handwashing, is crucial to prevent infections. While taking prescribed antibiotics as directed (Choice A) is important if prescribed, it is not the most crucial preventive measure in this scenario. Avoiding crowded places and sick people (Choice B) can help reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens but may not always be feasible. Keeping the surgical site clean and dry (Choice D) is important for wound care but is not the primary preventive measure to protect against infections in a post-splenectomy client.
What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells is to transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and return carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the body's tissues. Choice B is incorrect because hemoglobin is not involved in protecting the body from infections. Choice C is incorrect because blood clotting is mainly facilitated by platelets and clotting factors, not hemoglobin. Choice D is incorrect because the regulation of body temperature is mainly controlled by processes like sweating and shivering, not by hemoglobin.
Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for managing delirium in an elderly patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging family presence is the most appropriate intervention for managing delirium in elderly patients. This intervention provides orientation, reassurance, and comfort, which can help reduce confusion and anxiety, thus aiding in managing delirium. Keeping the room brightly lit (Choice A) may worsen delirium as it can disrupt the patient's sleep-wake cycle. Administering sedatives (Choice B) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary due to the risk of worsening delirium. Restricting fluids (Choice D) is not a recommended intervention for managing delirium, as hydration is important for overall patient well-being.
Which condition is most commonly associated with a "bull's eye" rash?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Lyme disease. The "bull's eye" rash, or erythema migrans, is a hallmark of early Lyme disease, caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Choice B, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, presents with a different type of rash. Choice C, Syphilis, typically presents with a painless ulcer and rash but not a "bull's eye" rash. Choice D, Toxoplasmosis, does not typically present with a "bull's eye" rash.
At one minute after birth, an infant is crying, has a heart rate of 140, has acrocyanosis, resists the suction catheter, and keeps his arms extended and his legs flexed. What is the Apgar score?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a heart rate over 100 (2 points), is crying (2 points indicating good respiratory effort), resists the catheter (2 points for good reflex irritability), but has acrocyanosis (partial point deduction of 1). Thus, the Apgar score at one minute after birth would be 8. Choice A is incorrect as the given signs indicate a higher score. Choice B is incorrect as the signs described support a score above 6. Choice D is incorrect as it represents a perfect score which is not the case here due to acrocyanosis.
The nurse is assisting with the admission of a young adult female Korean exchange student with acute abdominal pain. Although the client has been able to easily answer questions, when asked about sexual activity, she looks away. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Observing the client's response to another question is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By doing so, the nurse can assess whether the client's discomfort is due to cultural sensitivity or a misunderstanding. This approach allows the nurse to proceed with sensitivity and respect, ensuring effective communication. Option A is incorrect because omitting the section of the assessment form may result in missing crucial information relevant to the client's condition. Option B jumps to assumptions about a language barrier without confirming it first. Option C focuses on rewording the question without addressing the underlying issue causing the client's discomfort, which may not necessarily be due to a lack of understanding.
An 8-year-old is placed in 90-90 traction for a fractured femur resulting from a motor vehicle collision. Which finding requires further action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. In 90-90 traction, the weights should hang freely and not touch the foot of the bed to maintain proper traction and bone alignment. Option A is not necessarily a concern as bowel movements can be influenced by various factors, including diet changes and pain medication. Option B indicates good caregiver involvement, promoting comfort and preventing complications. Option D demonstrates neurovascular function, which is a positive finding. Therefore, the weights touching the foot of the bed is the finding that requires immediate attention to ensure the effectiveness of the traction.
While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the nurse observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Document that the fistula is intact. The palpable buzzing sensation (known as a thrill) over the AV fistula indicates proper functioning. It is essential for the nurse to document this finding to ensure ongoing monitoring of the fistula's status. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication to loosen the dressing. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not associated with the palpable buzzing sensation of a thrill. Choice D is incorrect as applying pressure over the site is not necessary for this situation.
In obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement, what action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action when obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement is to instruct the client to lie supine. This allows for establishing a baseline measurement of vital signs before any positional changes. Counting the client's radial pulse (Choice A) is a step that follows after the initial supine position to assess changes in pulse rate. Applying a blood pressure cuff (Choice B) and assisting the client to stand upright (Choice D) are actions that come later in the process after the baseline measurements are obtained in the supine position.
The HCP gives a pregnant woman a prescription for one prenatal vitamin with iron daily and tells her that she needs to increase foods in her diet because her hemoglobin is 8.2 grams/dL. When a list of iron-rich foods is given to the client, she tells the PN that she is a vegetarian and does not eat anything that "bleeds." Which instruction should the PN provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vegetarians can increase their iron intake through plant-based sources such as green leafy vegetables, oatmeal, and legumes, which are rich in iron.
While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.
A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is concerned about the continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What should the nurse explain to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube system indicates an air leak. An air leak can prevent the lung from fully re-expanding and may lead to complications like a recurrent pneumothorax. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate and address the air leak promptly. Choices B and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and does not indicate lung expansion. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should first assess and then report the issue to the healthcare provider.
Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. It helps ensure that the heparin levels are within the desired range to prevent either clotting or excessive bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but does not directly assess heparin's therapeutic effect. Prothrombin time (PT) (B) and International normalized ratio (INR) (D) are used to monitor patients on warfarin, not heparin therapy.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of calcium and phosphate in the blood?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Parathyroid hormone is the correct answer. It regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the blood by increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and releasing calcium from bones. Insulin is involved in glucose metabolism, not calcium and phosphate regulation. Cortisol is a stress hormone and is not primarily responsible for regulating calcium and phosphate levels. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone that primarily regulates metabolism, not calcium and phosphate in the blood.
You are teaching students about how hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics) are used to treat intracranial pressure. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of hyperosmotic agents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hyperosmotic agents primarily work by reducing cerebral edema, dehydrating the brain, and drawing fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma. However, they do not have a direct effect on reducing brain metabolism or systemic blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is correct as hyperosmotic agents do help in reducing cerebral edema. Choice C is accurate as hyperosmotic agents dehydrate the brain. Choice D is also true as these agents draw fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma.
To accommodate a patient who is an Orthodox Jew, you would assure that her diet does not include which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Orthodox Jewish dietary laws prohibit mixing meat and dairy in the same meal, so to accommodate an Orthodox Jew, you should ensure that their diet does not include any combination of meat and milk at the same meal. Choices B, C, and D are not prohibited in a kosher diet. Fish with scales, including salmon, are typically kosher, and grape juice is also permissible under kosher guidelines if certified. Therefore, options B, C, and D are acceptable in an Orthodox Jewish diet, while option A contradicts their dietary laws.
The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.
The UAP reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. Which action is best for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reason for refusal is crucial in identifying and addressing any underlying concerns or issues that may be contributing to the refusal. This approach promotes open communication, client-centered care, and helps in developing a plan of care that is tailored to the client's needs and preferences. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the root cause of the refusal and may not effectively resolve the situation.
The single mother of a child with a head injury is sitting at the child's bedside crying when the PN enters the room. The mother states, 'Why did this happen to my child? I just can't cope with this.' How should the PN respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Expressing empathy and acknowledging the mother's feelings helps in providing emotional support during a difficult time. This response validates her emotions and offers a comforting presence. Choice A is not appropriate as it focuses on gathering information rather than addressing the mother's emotional distress. Choice B may come off as dismissive of the mother's feelings and oversimplifies the complexity of the situation. Choice D shifts the responsibility to someone else instead of offering immediate support and comfort.
A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn for the first time after delivery reports nipple pain when the baby sucks. Based on this client problem, which action should the PN take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Proper latch, including all the areolar tissue in the infant's mouth, is essential to prevent nipple pain and ensure effective breastfeeding. Option A is correct because ensuring that all the areolar tissue of the nipple is in the infant's mouth helps achieve a good latch, reducing nipple pain. Option B is incorrect as repositioning the infant may not address the root cause of the pain related to latch issues. Option C is incorrect because while checking for engorgement and nipple issues is important, it does not directly address the latch concern causing the pain. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers; a warm compress can help with pain associated with engorgement, but it does not address latch issues.
A client who is at full-term gestation is in active labor and complains of a cramp in her leg. Which intervention should the PN implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During labor, muscle cramps are common due to prolonged muscle tension. The correct intervention to alleviate a cramp in the leg is to extend the leg and flex the foot. This action helps relieve the muscle spasm by stretching and contracting the muscles. Massaging the calf and foot (Choice A) may not be as effective in relieving the cramp as extending and flexing the leg. Elevating the leg above the heart (Choice B) is not necessary and may not directly address the cramp. Checking the pedal pulse (Choice C) is important for assessing circulation, but it does not directly address the muscle cramp.
A client with a recent total knee replacement is scheduled for physical therapy. The client refuses to participate, stating that the pain is too intense. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering pain medication before physical therapy helps manage the pain, making it easier for the client to participate in the necessary exercises to improve recovery and prevent complications such as joint stiffness. Choice B is not the first step as addressing the pain should take precedence. Choice C is important but should come after managing the pain to facilitate participation. Choice D involves another healthcare provider and is not the immediate action needed in this situation.
Which of the following best describes the role of insulin in the body?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose into cells. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into cells, where it can be used for energy production. Choice A is incorrect because insulin doesn't break down glucose but rather helps cells take up glucose. Choice C is incorrect as insulin does not directly convert glucose into fat; excess glucose is stored as fat by other processes. Choice D is incorrect as insulin does not increase the breakdown of protein into amino acids; its primary role is in glucose metabolism.
Which type of cell is responsible for producing antibodies in the immune system?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: B lymphocytes. B lymphocytes (B cells) are a crucial part of the adaptive immune system. They produce antibodies, which are proteins that specifically target and neutralize pathogens such as bacteria and viruses. T lymphocytes (choice B) are involved in cell-mediated immunity rather than antibody production. Macrophages (choice C) are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens but do not produce antibodies. Neutrophils (choice D) are a type of white blood cell that primarily function in the innate immune response by phagocytosing pathogens.
A client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, 'Which is the most common type of cancer in women?' The nurse replies that it is breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the most deaths in women?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related deaths in women, surpassing even breast cancer. While breast cancer is more common, it is often detected early enough for effective treatment. Lung cancer, on the other hand, tends to be diagnosed at later stages, leading to higher mortality rates. Brain cancer and colon and rectal cancer are not the leading causes of cancer-related deaths in women, making them incorrect choices.
Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
During the last 30 days, an elderly client has exhibited a progressively decreasing appetite, is spending increasing amounts of daytime hours in bed, and refuses to participate in planned daytime activities. Which action should the practical nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The practical nurse should record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse. These behaviors may indicate a serious underlying condition such as depression or physical illness. By reporting to the charge nurse, the client can receive appropriate assessment and intervention promptly. Choice B is incorrect as family visits may not address the root cause of the symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and may not be effective in addressing the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because withholding medications without proper assessment and guidance can be harmful to the client's health.
The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
The PN is caring for a client who had an acute brain attack with resulting expressive aphasia and urinary incontinence. To ensure care for the client, which task should the PN delegate to the UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assisting the client to the bedside commode is an appropriate task for the UAP as it involves basic patient care and mobility assistance, which are within the UAP's scope of practice. Options A and B involve communication techniques and documentation, which are more appropriate for licensed nursing staff. Option D involves establishing a bladder training schedule, which requires assessment and planning skills beyond the UAP's role.
Based on the computer documentation in the EMR, which action should the PN implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The rubella vaccine is crucial for preventing rubella infection, which can cause severe congenital disabilities if contracted during pregnancy. Administering the vaccine subcutaneously is the correct action based on EMR documentation. Observing breastfeeding, calling the nursery for blood type results, and administering pain medication are not indicated by the EMR documentation and are not relevant to the situation described in the question.
The UAP reports to the PN that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. Which action is best for the PN to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best action for the PN to take when a client refuses to bathe is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusing a bath is crucial as it helps to address any underlying issues, such as fear, discomfort, or physical limitations. By communicating directly with the client, the PN can provide appropriate care tailored to the client's needs. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the root cause of the refusal and may not effectively resolve the issue.
A client is post-operative day two from a total hip arthroplasty. The nurse notices the surgical wound is red and warm to the touch. What is the most appropriate action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action when a nurse notices redness and warmth at the surgical wound post total hip arthroplasty is to notify the healthcare provider. These signs may indicate an infection, and prompt evaluation by the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment. Applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection. Monitoring the client's temperature (Choice B) is important but not the priority when signs of infection are present. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor (Choice C) is necessary but should be accompanied by notifying the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention.
What is the correct order of steps in the nursing process?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct order in the nursing process is Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation. Assessment involves gathering information about the patient, Diagnosis is identifying the problem, Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, Implementation is carrying out the plan, and Evaluation is assessing the outcomes. Choices B, C, and D have the steps in the incorrect order, not following the standard nursing process framework. Therefore, the correct answer is option A.
Which condition is characterized by a progressive loss of muscle strength due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness caused by autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This results in impaired communication between nerves and muscles. Choice B, Multiple sclerosis, is a condition where the immune system attacks the protective myelin sheath covering the nerves in the central nervous system, leading to communication issues between the brain and the rest of the body. Choice C, Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, not involving acetylcholine receptors. Choice D, Guillain-Barré syndrome, is an acute condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nerves, causing muscle weakness and paralysis, but it does not target acetylcholine receptors.
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