Nursing Elites

1. A male client with alcohol dependence is admitted for detoxification. The nurse knows that which assessment finding is indicative of alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tremors
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tremors are a common sign of alcohol withdrawal. The central nervous system becomes hyperexcitable due to the suppression caused by chronic alcohol intake. Tremors are a manifestation of this hyperexcitability and are a key indicator of alcohol withdrawal. Bradycardia and hypotension are more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration rather than alcohol withdrawal. Hyperglycemia is not a typical finding in alcohol withdrawal; instead, hypoglycemia is more commonly seen due to the effects of alcohol on glucose metabolism.

2. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

3. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client's current feelings of depression?

• A. Feelings of frustration.
• B. A sense of loss.
• C. Poor self-esteem.
• D. A lack of intimate relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's recent life events, including divorce, job loss, and relationship breakup, all contribute to a significant sense of loss, which is likely the source of his current feelings of depression. While feelings of frustration and poor self-esteem could be present, the major life events the client has experienced are more closely associated with a sense of loss. A lack of intimate relationships is not the primary factor contributing to his depression in this scenario.

4. Over a period of several weeks, one male participant of a socialization group at a community day care center for the elderly monopolizes most of the group's time and interrupts others when they are talking. What is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation?

• A. Talk to the participant outside the group about his behavior during group meetings.
• B. Remind the participant to allow others in the group a chance to talk.
• C. Allow the group to handle the problem.
• D. Ask the participant to join another group.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Allowing the group to handle the situation is the best action as it promotes group dynamics and empowerment, especially since the group is in the working phase. Talking to the participant individually (A) might be seen as manipulative. Reminding the participant (B) can come across as dictatorial and may not address the underlying issue. Asking the participant to join another group (D) does not address the problem at hand and avoids the opportunity for growth and conflict resolution within the current group.

5. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
• D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

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