hesi test bank medical surgical nursing HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing

1. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of visual sensory/perceptual alterations. This problem is based on which etiology?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral vision. In open-angle glaucoma, decreased peripheral vision is a characteristic symptom resulting from increased intraocular pressure. This visual impairment can lead to sensory/perceptual alterations. Choice A, limited eye movement, is not directly associated with the pathophysiology of open-angle glaucoma. Choice C, blurred distance vision, is more commonly seen in conditions like myopia or presbyopia. Choice D, photosensitivity, is not a typical manifestation of open-angle glaucoma and is more commonly associated with conditions like migraines or certain medications.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with heart failure. Which instruction should be included to prevent fluid overload?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.' Daily weight monitoring is crucial for detecting fluid retention early in clients with heart failure. Reporting a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours can indicate fluid overload, prompting timely intervention. Choice B is incorrect because increasing fluid intake can exacerbate fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as a high-sodium diet can worsen fluid retention. Choice D is incorrect as vigorous exercise can strain the heart and worsen heart failure symptoms.

3. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns with over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago suddenly becomes restless and agitated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a burn patient with sudden restlessness and agitation, it is crucial to consider hypoxia or other critical conditions. As such, notifying the rapid response team is the most appropriate action to ensure prompt assessment and intervention. Increasing room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, the sudden change in behavior warrants immediate action. Assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is a step in the right direction, but involving the rapid response team ensures a comprehensive evaluation and timely management of the patient's condition.

4. What is the most critical initial intervention for a client who is actively seizing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical initial intervention for a client who is actively seizing is to turn the client to the side. This action helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration during a seizure. Restrain the client to prevent injury (Choice A) is incorrect because restraining a client during a seizure can lead to injury. Inserting an oral airway (Choice B) is not recommended as it can cause injury and is not necessary during an active seizure. Applying soft restraints to the wrists (Choice D) is also not recommended as it can lead to harm and does not address the immediate airway management needed during a seizure.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the client avoid?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Processed cheese. Processed cheese is high in sodium and should be avoided in a low-sodium diet for clients with hypertension. Fresh fruits, whole grain bread, and fresh vegetables are generally low in sodium and can be part of a healthy diet for clients with hypertension.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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