HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing

HESI LPN

HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing

1. The parents of a child who has been diagnosed with sickle cell anemia ask why their child experiences pain. What is the most likely cause of the pain?

A. Inflammation of the vessels
B. Obstructed blood flow
C. Overhydration
D. Stress-related headaches

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obstructed blood flow. In sickle cell anemia, the sickle-shaped red blood cells can clump together, obstructing blood flow in the vessels. This obstruction leads to tissue hypoxia (lack of oxygen) and necrosis, causing pain. Choice A, inflammation of the vessels, is not the primary cause of pain in sickle cell anemia. Choice C, overhydration, is unrelated to the pathophysiology of sickle cell anemia. Choice D, stress-related headaches, is not a characteristic symptom of sickle cell anemia.

2. The nurse determines that an adult client who is admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.4°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/68 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?

A. Check the BP every five minutes for one hour.
B. Raise the HOB 60 to 90 degrees.
C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
D. Take the client’s temperature using another method.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking the temperature using another method is essential in this situation to verify if the low reading is accurate and requires further intervention. The tympanic temperature of 94.6°F may be inaccurate due to various factors such as improper technique or environmental conditions. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the low blood pressure reading alone does not necessitate such frequent monitoring. Raising the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature and blood pressure. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) is a general intervention that may not directly address the specific concern of the low temperature reading.

3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with heart failure. Which instruction should be included to prevent fluid overload?

A. Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
B. Increase fluid intake to stay hydrated
C. Consume a high-sodium diet to retain fluids
D. Engage in vigorous exercise daily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.' Daily weight monitoring is crucial for detecting fluid retention early in clients with heart failure. Reporting a gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours can indicate fluid overload, prompting timely intervention. Choice B is incorrect because increasing fluid intake can exacerbate fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as a high-sodium diet can worsen fluid retention. Choice D is incorrect as vigorous exercise can strain the heart and worsen heart failure symptoms.

4. Which is a long-term complication of cleft lip and palate?

A. Cognitive impairment
B. Altered growth and development
C. Faulty dentition
D. Physical abilities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Faulty dentition.' The older child with cleft lip and palate may experience psychological difficulties due to the cosmetic appearance of the defect, issues with impaired speech, and faulty dentition. This can lead to problems with dental alignment, crowding, missing or malformed teeth, and other dental issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as cognitive impairment, altered growth and development, and physical abilities are not typically considered long-term complications of cleft lip and palate.

5. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.