Free HESI LPN Maternal Newborn practice for HESI Focus on Maternity Exam (HESI LPN). Answer 45 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and prog
Which FHR finding is the most concerning to the nurse providing care to a laboring client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, resulting in fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent, indicating compromised oxygen supply to the fetus. Accelerations with fetal movement (Choice A) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being. Early decelerations (Choice B) are typically benign, associated with head compression during contractions. An average FHR of 126 beats per minute (Choice C) falls within the normal range for fetal heart rate and is not concerning. Therefore, the most concerning FHR finding in a laboring client is late decelerations (Choice D).
After meiosis, each new cell nucleus contains _____ chromosomes.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After meiosis, each resulting cell contains 23 chromosomes. Meiosis is a process that involves two sequential divisions resulting in four daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. In humans, the parent cell has 46 chromosomes (diploid), and after meiosis, the resulting cells (sperm or ova) have 23 chromosomes (haploid). Choice A (46 chromosomes) is incorrect because this is the number of chromosomes in a human diploid cell before meiosis. Choices B (35 chromosomes) and D (12 chromosomes) are incorrect as they do not represent the correct number of chromosomes after meiosis in human cells.
Which synthetic hormone is used to prevent miscarriages and can cause masculinization of the fetus?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Progestin is the synthetic hormone used to prevent miscarriages. While it is beneficial in maintaining pregnancy, in some cases, it can lead to masculinization of the fetus. Testosterone (Choice A) and estrogen (Choice B) are not typically used to prevent miscarriages and do not cause masculinization of the fetus in this context. Oxytocin (Choice D) is a hormone involved in labor and breastfeeding, but it is not used to prevent miscarriages nor does it cause masculinization of the fetus.
Which of the following illnesses causes degeneration of the central nervous system?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tay-Sachs disease is a genetic disorder that causes a progressive degeneration of the central nervous system, particularly in infants. Choice B, Cystic fibrosis, is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the lungs and digestive system, not the central nervous system. Choices C and D, Turner syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome, are chromosomal disorders that do not directly involve degeneration of the central nervous system.
A client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery with a complaint of contractions 5 minutes apart. While the client is in the bathroom changing into a hospital gown, the nurse hears the noise of a baby. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inspecting the client's perineum immediately is necessary to assess if the baby is being delivered, which would require urgent action. Pushing the call light for help (Choice A) may delay the assessment and immediate action needed. Notifying a healthcare provider (Choice C) might cause further delays, as the situation requires urgent attention. Turning on the infant warmer (Choice D) is not the priority; ensuring safe delivery and assessment of the baby's condition come first.
When children who are reared by adoptive parents are nonetheless more similar to their natural parents in a trait, it can be concluded that:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When children exhibit traits that are more similar to their biological parents than their adoptive parents, it indicates a strong genetic influence on those traits. This similarity suggests that genetics play a significant role in the development of the observed characteristics. Choice A is incorrect because genetic characteristics do not change over time in this context. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that heredity is the only factor, disregarding the impact of the environment. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that only the environment influences trait development, overlooking the genetic contribution.
When both of the alleles for a trait, such as hair color, are the same, the person is said to be _____ for that trait.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A person is homozygous for a trait when they have two identical alleles for that trait. In this case, both alleles are the same, indicating a homozygous genotype. Choice A, 'monozygous,' is incorrect as it refers to identical twins originating from a single fertilized egg. Choice B, 'dizygous,' is also incorrect as it refers to fraternal twins or individuals that develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Choice D, 'hemizygous,' is incorrect because it describes a genetic condition where only one allele is present in a diploid organism, typically related to genes on the sex chromosomes.
What is the primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth is to reduce heat loss from evaporation. This helps maintain the infant's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Choice A (Stimulates crying and lung expansion) is incorrect because drying the infant is not primarily done to stimulate crying but rather to prevent heat loss. Choice B (Removes maternal blood from the skin surface) is incorrect as the main reason is to prevent heat loss, not to remove maternal blood. Choice D (Increases blood supply to the hands and feet) is also incorrect as drying the infant is not intended to increase blood supply but rather to regulate body temperature.
Which of the following is most likely to develop sickle cell anemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sickle cell anemia is most commonly found in individuals of African American descent. This is because sickle cell trait provides some protection against malaria, and historically, regions where malaria is or was prevalent have higher rates of sickle cell anemia. Therefore, individuals with African ancestry are at a higher risk of developing sickle cell anemia compared to other populations. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to develop sickle cell anemia due to lower genetic prevalence in their respective populations.
A newborn is scheduled to start phototherapy using a lamp. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During phototherapy using a lamp, it is crucial to protect the newborn's eyes from the light to prevent damage. Closing the newborn's eyes beneath the shield is essential for this purpose. Applying lotion to the skin (Choice A) is not recommended as it can intensify the effects of the phototherapy. Giving glucose water (Choice B) is unrelated to the phototherapy process and is not indicated. Dressing the newborn in clothing (Choice D) may hinder the effectiveness of the phototherapy by blocking the light exposure to the skin.
Before meiosis, a sperm cell:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before meiosis, a sperm cell contains 46 chromosomes. This is because sperm cells, like other somatic cells, have a diploid number of chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved to 23 to combine with an egg cell during fertilization. Choice B is incorrect because a sperm cell carries either an X or a Y chromosome, not both (Choice D). Choice C is incorrect as sperm cells are generally smaller than egg cells, which is an adaptation that aids in motility and penetration of the egg during fertilization.
A client is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Bilateral crackles. Bilateral crackles indicate respiratory complications, which can occur as an adverse effect of an epidural block with opioid analgesics. Hypotension (Choice A) is a common side effect of epidural opioids but is not typically monitored via crackles. Polyuria (Choice B) is excessive urination and is not directly associated with epidural blocks. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is high blood sugar levels and is not a typical adverse effect of epidural opioids.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a term newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following results require intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A glucose level of 20 mg/dL is critically low for a newborn and requires immediate intervention. Hypoglycemia in a newborn can lead to serious complications such as neurologic deficits. The normal range for glucose levels in a newborn is typically 40-60 mg/dL. Choices A, B, and C represent normal or acceptable values for a term newborn and do not require immediate intervention. A WBC count of 10,000/mm3, platelets of 180,000/mm3, and hemoglobin of 20g/dL are all within normal ranges for a term newborn and do not raise immediate concerns.
Polygenic traits are those that are:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Polygenic traits, such as height and skin color, are determined by several pairs of genes working together. These traits are influenced by the combined effects of multiple genes across the genome, rather than being controlled by a single gene pair. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because polygenic traits are not specifically developed during adolescence, transmitted by the mother, or uncommon in humans. Understanding polygenic traits is essential in genetics as they demonstrate the complexity of genetic inheritance and the influence of multiple genes on a single trait.
A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.
Preconception counseling is crucial for the safe management of diabetic pregnancies. Which complication is commonly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Preconception counseling is essential as strict metabolic control before conception and in the early weeks of gestation helps reduce the risk of congenital anomalies. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia usually occur during the first trimester due to hormonal changes, affecting insulin production and use, rather than before conception. Hydramnios is more common in diabetic pregnancies, typically seen in the third trimester, not during early pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum, although it may lead to hypoglycemic events, is related to decreased food intake and glucose transfer to the fetus, exacerbating hypoglycemia rather than being directly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy.
The mother of a breastfeeding 24-hour old infant is very concerned about the techniques involved in breastfeeding. She calls the nurse with each feeding to seek reassurance that she is doing it right. She tells the nurse, "Now my daughter is not getting enough to eat." Which response would be best for the nurse to make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Reassuring the mother that the baby's urine color can be an indicator of adequate hydration can help her feel more confident in her breastfeeding.
Following a traumatic delivery, an infant receives an initial Apgar score of 3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a situation where an infant receives a low Apgar score of 3 following a traumatic delivery, the most crucial intervention for the nurse to implement is to continue resuscitative efforts. A low Apgar score indicates that the newborn is in distress and requires immediate medical attention to support breathing, heart rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. Continuing resuscitative efforts is essential to provide life-saving interventions promptly. Paging the pediatrician may cause a delay in crucial interventions, repeating the Apgar assessment in 5 minutes is not appropriate as immediate action is needed to stabilize the infant, and informing parents should not take precedence over providing immediate medical care to the newborn.
Twins that derive from a single zygote that has split into two are called:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, occur when a single zygote splits into two embryos, leading to two genetically identical individuals. Choice B, fraternal twins, are twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, resulting in non-identical siblings. Choice C, non-identical twins, is not a common term used to describe this type of twinning. Choice D, dizygotic (DZ) twins, refer to twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, leading to non-identical twins.
A newborn is 24 hours old, and a healthcare provider is caring for them. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: WBC count 32,000/mm3. A WBC count of 32,000/mm3 is significantly elevated in a newborn and could indicate an infection, which needs immediate attention and intervention. High white blood cell counts in newborns can be concerning as they may suggest an ongoing infection or other underlying issues that require prompt medical evaluation and treatment. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and would not typically warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Hgb levels of 20 g/dL (Choice A) are high for newborns, but this is not as concerning as a significantly elevated WBC count. Bilirubin levels of 2 mg/dL (Choice B) are within normal limits for a newborn and do not indicate immediate issues. Platelet count of 200,000/mm3 (Choice C) is also within the normal range for a newborn and would not require immediate reporting.
Monozygotic (MZ) twins are known as fraternal twins.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'FALSE.' Monozygotic (MZ) twins are identical twins, not fraternal. Fraternal twins are dizygotic (DZ). The statement in the question is incorrect as MZ twins are genetically identical, while fraternal twins actually refer to dizygotic twins who develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Therefore, monozygotic twins are not known as fraternal twins, making option B the correct choice. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the relationship between monozygotic and fraternal twins.
What is the typical sex chromosome pattern for females?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The typical sex chromosome pattern for females is XX. Females have two X chromosomes, which is represented as XX. Choice B (XYY) is incorrect as it represents the sex chromosome pattern for males with an extra Y chromosome. Choice C (XY) is the sex chromosome pattern for males. Choice D (XXY) represents a genetic disorder known as Klinefelter syndrome, where males have an extra X chromosome.
According to a survey by Adhikari and Liu in the year 2013, at birth, women have:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Women are born with approximately 300,000 to 400,000 ova, which gradually decrease in number as they age. Choice A ('close to 100,000 ova.') is incorrect as the actual number is much higher. Choice C ('around 100 to 200 ova.') is incorrect as it underestimates the quantity significantly. Choice D ('only 500 ova.') is incorrect as it greatly underestimates the number of ova present at birth.
Are babies with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) often larger than normal, and so are their brains?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: FALSE. Babies with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) are typically smaller than normal, with smaller brains and developmental issues. Choice A is incorrect because babies with FAS are not larger than normal. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately reflect the typical characteristics of babies with FAS. Choice D is incorrect as babies with FAS are not always larger than normal.
A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.
Which of the following most accurately describes the function of genes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'They regulate the development of traits.' Genes play a crucial role in regulating the development of traits by encoding proteins that control various bodily functions and characteristics. This process involves gene expression and the production of proteins that ultimately determine an individual's traits. Choice B is incorrect because genes do not have a direct role in preventing foreign particles from entering the body; this function is primarily carried out by the immune system. Choice C is incorrect as genes do not specifically work with lutein to influence development; genes operate independently to regulate trait expression. Choice D is incorrect as genes are not responsible for transferring oxygen in the bloodstream; this function is carried out by red blood cells and hemoglobin.
During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.
The nurse is providing care for a newborn who was delivered vaginally assisted by forceps. The nurse observes red marks on the head with swelling that does not cross the suture line. Which condition should the nurse document in the medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Cephalhematoma. Cephalhematoma is a collection of blood between the skull bone and periosteum that does not cross the suture line. It often occurs due to birth trauma, such as forceps delivery, leading to localized swelling. Caput succedaneum (Choice A) is diffuse swelling of the scalp that may cross suture lines and is typically present at birth. Hydrocephalus (Choice B) is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain's ventricles. Microcephaly (Choice D) is a condition characterized by a smaller than average head size and may be present at birth or develop later in infancy.
After mitosis, the genetic code is identical in new cells unless _________ occur through radiation or other environmental influences.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After mitosis, the genetic code is typically preserved and remains identical in the new cells. However, mutations can occur due to radiation or environmental influences, leading to changes in the DNA sequence and potentially altering the genetic code. Therefore, the correct answer is 'mutations.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reductions, expulsions, and conceptions do not accurately describe the changes in the genetic code that can result from external factors. Mutations are the only option that reflects the alteration in the genetic code caused by external influences, making it the correct choice in this context.
Monozygotic (MZ) twins share _________ percent of their genes.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monozygotic (MZ) twins share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two, resulting in identical genetic material for both twins. Choice B (75%) is incorrect as it implies a partial genetic similarity, which is not the case for MZ twins. Choice C (50%) is incorrect as it suggests half of the genes are shared, which is applicable to dizygotic (DZ) twins, not MZ. Choice D (25%) is incorrect as it indicates minimal genetic sharing, which is not true for MZ twins.
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione (vitamin K) to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease due to their low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. Choice A is incorrect as vitamin K administration is not related to improving dietary intake. Choice B is incorrect as vitamin K doesn't stimulate the immune system. Choice C is incorrect as vitamin K is not given to help an immature liver, but rather to prevent hemorrhagic disorders.
_____ is a life-threatening disease, characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Preeclampsia is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby. Rubella (choice A) is a viral infection that can harm the developing fetus but is not directly related to high blood pressure in pregnancy. Syphilis (choice B) is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect pregnancy but does not specifically cause high blood pressure. Phenylketonuria (choice D) is a genetic disorder that affects metabolism and is not associated with high blood pressure in pregnancy.
A 17-year-old client gave birth 12 hours ago. She states that she doesn't know how to care for her baby. To promote parent-infant attachment behaviors, which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging rooming in while in the hospital is the most appropriate intervention to promote parent-infant attachment behaviors. Rooming in allows the mother to stay with her baby continuously, facilitating bonding and providing the opportunity for the mother to learn how to care for her baby with the nurse's support. Asking if she has help at home (Choice A) does not directly address promoting attachment behaviors. Providing a video on newborn safety and care (Choice B) may offer information but does not actively facilitate immediate bonding. Exploring the basis of fears (Choice C) is important but may not directly address promoting attachment behaviors as effectively as encouraging rooming in.
A client in the transition phase of labor reports a pain level of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the transition phase of labor, a client may experience intense back pain due to the pressure of the baby descending. Applying counterpressure to the client's sacrum can help alleviate this discomfort. Effleurage is a light stroking massage technique that may not provide adequate relief for intense back pain. Patterned-paced breathing is beneficial for managing contractions but may not directly address back pain. Biofeedback is a technique that helps individuals gain awareness and control of certain physiological functions, but it may not be the most appropriate intervention for acute labor pain.
What is the purpose of amniocentesis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus, such as chromosomal disorders like Down syndrome. It is not performed to induce abortion. The primary purpose of amniocentesis is to assess the genetic health of the fetus, not to determine the baby's gender (Choice C). While amniocentesis can provide information about the baby's health and development, it is not primarily used for monitoring fetal growth (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is B.
When reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client, which of the following factors places the client at risk for infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. This procedure increases the risk of infection in the postpartum period due to the incision site being a potential entry point for pathogens. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) is a risk factor for fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding issues but not necessarily an increased risk of infection. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that affects some pregnant women but is not directly associated with an increased risk of infection in the postpartum period.
A new parent is receiving discharge teaching about car seat safety from a nurse. Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Positioning the car seat at a 45-degree angle is crucial to prevent the baby's head from falling forward, which can obstruct the airway. Choice B is incorrect because the recommendation is to keep the car seat rear-facing until the baby reaches the height or weight limit set by the car seat manufacturer, typically beyond 12 months. Choice C is incorrect as the harness should be snugly placed at or below the baby's shoulders, not above. Choice D is incorrect as the retainer clip should be positioned at armpit level to secure the harness straps properly.
What nursing action should the nurse implement for a 3-hour-old male infant who presents with cyanotic hands and feet, an axillary temperature of 96.5°F (35.8°C), a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute, and a heart rate of 165 beats per minute?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct nursing action is to gradually warm the infant under a radiant heat source. The infant is presenting with signs of cold stress, indicated by cyanotic extremities and a low body temperature. Gradual warming is crucial to stabilize the infant's temperature and prevent further complications. Administering oxygen, notifying the pediatrician, or performing a heel-stick are not the priority actions in this scenario and may not address the immediate need to raise the infant's body temperature.
A healthcare provider is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the healthcare provider expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation, healthcare providers should expect minimal arm recoil. This finding is common in preterm infants due to lower muscle tone. Choice B, a popliteal angle of less than 90°, is incorrect for this age group. Creases over the entire sole (Choice C) typically develop at term age, not at 32 weeks of gestation. Sparse lanugo (Choice D) is a normal finding in preterm infants but is not specific to those at 32 weeks of gestation.
The nurse has received a report regarding a client in labor. The woman's last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and -2. What is the nurse's interpretation of this assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct interpretation of the assessment provided is that the cervix is dilated 3 cm and effaced 30%; the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. In the given assessment, the measurements are ordered as dilation, effacement, and station. Choice A is incorrect as it wrongly places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice C is incorrect because it places the presenting part below the ischial spines. Choice D is also incorrect as it incorrectly states that the presenting part is below the ischial spines, even though it correctly mentions the dilation and effacement of the cervix.
A client experiencing preterm labor is being taught about terbutaline by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to stop preterm labor. One of its common side effects is heart palpitations due to its action on beta receptors in the heart. Choices B and C are incorrect because blurred vision and ringing in the ears are not common side effects of terbutaline. Choice D is irrelevant to the side effects of terbutaline.
An individual's phenotype reflects both genetic and environmental influences.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: phenotype. A phenotype is the observable characteristics of an individual, which result from the interaction of their genotype with the environment. This interaction between genetics and the environment determines how genes are expressed and how traits are manifested in an individual. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chromosomes, alleles, and genotypes are components of an individual's genetic makeup, but they do not directly reflect the observable traits influenced by both genetics and the environment.
A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was 1500 ml. When evaluating the woman's vital signs, which finding would be of greatest concern to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An estimated blood loss (EBL) of 1500 ml following a vaginal birth is significant and can lead to hypovolemia. The vital signs provided in option A (Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 bpm, respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg) indicate tachycardia and hypotension, which are concerning signs of hypovolemia due to excessive blood loss. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased blood volume, and hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion. Options B, C, and D do not exhibit the same level of concern for hypovolemia. Option B shows tachypnea, which can be a result of pain or anxiety postpartum. Option C and D have vital signs within normal limits, which are not indicative of the body's response to significant blood loss.
A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured. What is the nurse's highest priority in this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern (Choice D). When a multiparous woman's membranes rupture after 8 hours of labor, the nurse's priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Rupture of membranes can lead to potential complications such as umbilical cord prolapse. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and pattern immediately after the rupture of membranes is crucial to ensure the fetus is not in distress. This assessment helps in determining the need for immediate interventions to safeguard the fetus. Documenting the characteristics of the fluid (Choice C) may be necessary but is of lower priority compared to assessing fetal well-being. While preparing the woman for imminent birth (Choice A) is important, assessing the fetal heart rate takes precedence to ensure the fetus is not compromised. Notifying the woman's primary healthcare provider (Choice B) is also important but not the highest priority at this moment.
_______ is a genetic disorder in which blood does not clot properly.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hemophilia is a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency in blood clotting factors, leading to prolonged bleeding. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, not blood clotting. Lymphoma is a type of cancer originating in the lymphatic system and is not related to blood clotting abnormalities. Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder that affects a person's ability to move, think, and behave.
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