HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. At which of the following locations should the healthcare professional place the Doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate?
- A. Midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis
- B. Left Upper Abdomen
- C. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
- D. Lateral at the Xiphoid Process
Correct answer: A
Rationale: At 14 weeks of gestation, the uterus is still relatively low in the abdomen. Placing the Doppler midline 2 to 3 cm above the symphysis pubis is appropriate for assessing the fetal heart rate. This location allows for better detection of the fetal heart tones as the uterus is at a lower position during this stage of pregnancy. Placing the Doppler on the left upper abdomen would not be ideal at 14 weeks gestation as the uterus is not yet at that level. Placing it two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus or lateral at the xiphoid process would also not be accurate for locating the fetal heart rate at this stage of gestation.
2. A charge nurse is teaching a group of staff nurses about fetal monitoring during labor. Which of the following findings should the charge nurse instruct the staff members to report to the provider?
- A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds
- B. Contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart
- C. Absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate
- D. Fetal heart rate is 140/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds are prolonged, indicating uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and requires immediate intervention. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure timely management and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice B, contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart, is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate, is a reassuring finding suggesting fetal well-being. Choice D, a fetal heart rate of 140/min, is also normal for a fetus and does not typically require immediate reporting unless it deviates significantly from the baseline or is accompanied by other concerning signs.
3. A newborn is being assessed following a forceps-assisted birth. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse identify as a complication of the birth method?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Polycythemia
- C. Facial Palsy
- D. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Facial palsy is a known complication of forceps-assisted birth. During forceps delivery, pressure applied to the facial nerve can result in facial palsy. The newborn may present with weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is not directly related to forceps-assisted birth. Polycythemia (Choice B) is a condition characterized by an increased number of red blood cells and is not typically associated with forceps delivery. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (Choice D) is a lung condition that primarily affects premature infants who require mechanical ventilation and prolonged oxygen therapy, not a direct outcome of forceps-assisted birth.
4. Females with Turner syndrome:
- A. possess more thymine than cytosine.
- B. are taller than average.
- C. produce little estrogen.
- D. are more likely to give birth to twins.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Turner syndrome is a chromosomal disorder in females characterized by short stature and underdeveloped ovaries, resulting in low estrogen production. This leads to symptoms such as delayed puberty and infertility. Choice A is incorrect because the chromosomal abnormality in Turner syndrome does not affect the thymine-cytosine ratio. Choice B is incorrect as females with Turner syndrome are typically shorter than average. Choice D is incorrect as Turner syndrome does not increase the likelihood of giving birth to twins.
5. A woman with gestational diabetes has had little or no experience reading and interpreting glucose levels. The client shows the nurse her readings for the past few days. Which reading signals the nurse that the client may require an adjustment of insulin or carbohydrates?
- A. 75 mg/dl before lunch. This is low; better eat now.
- B. 115 mg/dl 1 hour after lunch. This is a little high; maybe eat a little less next time.
- C. 115 mg/dl 2 hours after lunch. This is too high; it is time for insulin.
- D. 50 mg/dl just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: 50 mg/dl after waking from a nap is too low. During hours of sleep, glucose levels should not be less than 60 mg/dl. Snacks before sleeping can be helpful. The premeal acceptable range is 60 to 99 mg/dl. The readings 1 hour after a meal should be less than 129 mg/dl. Two hours after eating, the readings should be less than 120 mg/dl.
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