hesi focus on maternity exam HESI Focus on Maternity Exam - Nursing Elites
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HESI Focus on Maternity Exam

1. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

2. As women reach the end of their childbearing years, does ovulation become more regular?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. As women age and reach the end of their childbearing years, ovulation becomes less regular due to hormonal changes associated with menopause. This can result in irregular ovulation patterns or even the cessation of ovulation entirely. Choice A is incorrect because ovulation does not become more regular with age. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the changes in ovulation patterns that occur as women approach the end of their childbearing years.

3. A charge nurse is teaching a group of staff nurses about fetal monitoring during labor. Which of the following findings should the charge nurse instruct the staff members to report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds are prolonged, indicating uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and requires immediate intervention. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure timely management and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice B, contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart, is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate, is a reassuring finding suggesting fetal well-being. Choice D, a fetal heart rate of 140/min, is also normal for a fetus and does not typically require immediate reporting unless it deviates significantly from the baseline or is accompanied by other concerning signs.

4. A client has active genital herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is the antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, including genital herpes caused by herpes simplex virus type 2. Metronidazole (Choice A) is an antibiotic used for different types of infections, but not for viral infections like herpes. Penicillin (Choice B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viruses like herpes. Gentamicin (Choice D) is an antibiotic mainly used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like herpes.

5. Most victims of _____ die of respiratory infections in their 20s.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individuals with cystic fibrosis have a genetic disorder that causes mucus to be thick and sticky, leading to blockages in the lungs and digestive system. This mucus buildup makes them more susceptible to severe respiratory infections, which can ultimately result in premature death in their 20s. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system, not typically causing respiratory infections. Turner syndrome (Choice C) and Klinefelter syndrome (Choice D) are chromosomal disorders that do not directly lead to the respiratory issues observed in cystic fibrosis.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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