HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health 2023
1. Select the nursing interventions for a hospitalized client with mania who is exhibiting manipulative behavior. Select one intervention that does not apply.
- A. Communicate expected behaviors to the client
- B. Ensure that the client knows that he or she is not in charge of the nursing unit
- C. Assist the client in identifying ways of setting limits on personal behaviors
- D. Follow through about the consequences of behavior in a non-punitive manner
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ensuring that the client knows they are not in charge of the nursing unit is not a helpful nursing intervention for managing manipulative behavior in a client with mania. Communicating expected behaviors, assisting with limit-setting, and following through on consequences in a non-punitive manner are more appropriate interventions to address manipulative behavior.
2. A female client with depression attends a group and states that she sometimes misses her medication appointments because she feels very anxious about riding the bus. Which statement is the nurse's best response?
- A. Can your case manager take you to your appointments?
- B. Take your medication for anxiety before you ride the bus.
- C. Let's talk about what happens when you feel very anxious.
- D. What are some ways that you can cope with your anxiety?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss coping mechanisms for anxiety is a supportive approach that empowers the client to manage their symptoms. Choice A may not address the client's self-management and coping skills. Choice B suggests using anxiety medication before riding the bus, which may not be the most appropriate solution. Choice C acknowledges the anxiety but does not actively involve the client in finding solutions, unlike Choice D which promotes client empowerment and self-efficacy.
3. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions.
- D. Encourage the client to express feelings about withdrawal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal, the first intervention the nurse should implement is to monitor the client's vital signs. Vital sign monitoring is crucial to assess for any potential complications such as hypertension, tachycardia, fever, or other signs of autonomic hyperactivity. Administering medication like lorazepam (Ativan) would come after assessing the vital signs to determine the need for pharmacological intervention. Placing the client on seizure precautions is important, but assessing vital signs takes precedence to ensure immediate safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings about withdrawal is a supportive intervention but does not address the immediate physiological risk associated with alcohol withdrawal.
4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement during the first 24 hours of hospitalization?
- A. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs and weight.
- C. Establish a trusting relationship with the client.
- D. Provide emotional support to the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's vital signs and weight. This intervention is crucial in assessing the severity of the client's condition and planning appropriate care. Vital signs and weight monitoring help in evaluating the client's physiological status and identifying any immediate concerns related to anorexia nervosa. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of care for a client with anorexia nervosa; however, during the initial 24 hours of hospitalization, monitoring vital signs and weight takes precedence as it provides essential data for the client's ongoing management and treatment.
5. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?
- A. Dizziness when standing.
- B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Fever of 102°F.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.
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