Nursing Elites

1. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is being taught about buspirone (BuSpar) by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. It may take several weeks before I feel better.
• C. This medication does not cause dependence.
• D. I can drink alcohol while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement 'I can drink alcohol while taking this medication' (D) indicates a need for further teaching. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking buspirone because it can increase the risk of side effects such as dizziness and drowsiness. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements regarding buspirone and do not require further teaching.

2. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has been prescribed lithium carbonate. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Do not change your salt intake while on this medication.
• C. Drink plenty of water and maintain a consistent salt intake.
• D. Avoid excessive intake of caffeine while on this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client prescribed lithium carbonate is not to change their salt intake. Alterations in sodium levels can impact lithium levels, leading to an increased risk of toxicity. Choice A is not crucial for lithium carbonate administration. While hydration is essential, maintaining a consistent salt intake is more critical than just increasing water intake (Choice C). Although caffeine can interact with lithium, it is not as important as maintaining a consistent salt intake (Choice D).

3. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
• B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
• C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
• D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

4. When a client with schizophrenia is being discharged on antipsychotic medication, what is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Stop the medication if you start feeling better.
• B. Be aware of the potential for weight gain with this medication.
• C. Report any unusual muscle movements immediately.
• D. You can drive as soon as you feel ready.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any unusual muscle movements immediately. These movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) or tardive dyskinesia, which are serious side effects of antipsychotic medications that require immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication without medical advice can lead to a relapse of symptoms. Choice B is important but not as critical as monitoring for EPS. Choice D is incorrect because driving readiness is not directly related to antipsychotic medication instructions.

5. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

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