HESI LPN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions
1. What is the primary role of meiosis in the production of sperm and ova?
- A. To reduce the chromosome number by half
- B. To increase the chromosome number
- C. To create identical copies of chromosomes
- D. To repair damaged chromosomes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in the formation of sperm and ova. Choice B is incorrect because meiosis does not increase the chromosome number. Choice C is incorrect because meiosis creates genetically diverse gametes, not identical copies of chromosomes. Choice D is incorrect because meiosis does not primarily function to repair damaged chromosomes.
2. A newborn's head circumference is 12 inches (30.5 cm) and his chest measurement is 13 inches (33 cm). The nurse notes that this infant has no molding, and it was a breech presentation delivered by cesarean section. What action should the nurse take based on this data?
- A. No action needs to be taken, it is normal for an infant born by cesarean section to have a small head circumference.
- B. Notify the pediatrician immediately. These signs support the possibility of hydrocephalus.
- C. Call these findings to the attention of the pediatrician. The head/chest ratio is abnormal.
- D. Record the findings on the chart. They are within normal limits.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Head and chest circumference measurements are within normal limits for a newborn, especially for those delivered by cesarean section, so no immediate action is required beyond documentation.
3. Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for:
- A. insomnia and nausea.
- B. infertility and impotence.
- C. Down syndrome.
- D. Turner syndrome.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thalidomide was initially marketed as a treatment for insomnia and nausea, particularly in pregnant women. However, it was later found to cause severe birth defects, leading to significant consequences. Choice B, infertility and impotence, is incorrect as thalidomide was not marketed for these conditions. Choices C and D, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome, are genetic conditions and not conditions for which thalidomide was intended as a treatment.
4. A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Urinary Frequency
- C. Breast Tenderness
- D. Chills
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breast Tenderness.' Clomiphene citrate is known to cause breast tenderness as a common side effect due to its hormonal effects on the body. Tinnitus (choice A), which is a ringing in the ears, is not typically associated with clomiphene citrate. Urinary frequency (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of this medication. Chills (choice D) are also not commonly linked to clomiphene citrate use.
5. Twins that derive from a single zygote that has split into two are called:
- A. monozygotic (MZ) twins.
- B. fraternal twins.
- C. non-identical twins.
- D. dizygotic (DZ) twins.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, occur when a single zygote splits into two embryos, leading to two genetically identical individuals. Choice B, fraternal twins, are twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, resulting in non-identical siblings. Choice C, non-identical twins, is not a common term used to describe this type of twinning. Choice D, dizygotic (DZ) twins, refer to twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, leading to non-identical twins.
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