HESI Maternity 55 Questions

HESI LPN

HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. What is the primary role of meiosis in the production of sperm and ova?

A. To reduce the chromosome number by half
B. To increase the chromosome number
C. To create identical copies of chromosomes
D. To repair damaged chromosomes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in the formation of sperm and ova. Choice B is incorrect because meiosis does not increase the chromosome number. Choice C is incorrect because meiosis creates genetically diverse gametes, not identical copies of chromosomes. Choice D is incorrect because meiosis does not primarily function to repair damaged chromosomes.

2. _______ is a genetic disorder in which blood does not clot properly.

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Hemophilia
C. Lymphoma
D. Huntington’s disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hemophilia is a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency in blood clotting factors, leading to prolonged bleeding. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, not blood clotting. Lymphoma is a type of cancer originating in the lymphatic system and is not related to blood clotting abnormalities. Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder that affects a person's ability to move, think, and behave.

3. What is a procedure for using ultrasonic sound waves to create a picture of an embryo or fetus?

A. Phenotype
B. Sonogram
C. Genotype
D. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sonogram, also known as an ultrasound, is a procedure that utilizes sound waves to generate images of a developing embryo or fetus. This imaging technique is commonly used in prenatal care to monitor fetal development and identify any potential abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a phenotype refers to an individual's observable traits resulting from genetic and environmental influences, a genotype is an individual's genetic makeup, and an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay is a blood test used to screen for certain birth defects.

4. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?

A. Uterine atony.
B. Uterine inversion.
C. Vaginal hematoma.
D. Vaginal laceration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.

5. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and not up-to-date on current immunizations should anticipate receiving which of the following immunizations following birth?

A. Pneumococcal
B. Hepatitis
C. Human papillomavirus
D. Rubella

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rubella. Rubella vaccine is recommended postpartum to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies. Pneumococcal and Hepatitis vaccines are not routinely given postpartum. Human papillomavirus vaccine is not typically administered immediately after birth but rather at a later age to prevent HPV infections.