Nursing Elites

1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is hospitalized for treatment. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Allow the client to engage in compulsive behaviors as a way to reduce anxiety.
• B. Encourage the client to ignore the compulsive behaviors.
• C. Help the client to understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors.
• D. Work with the client to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with OCD is to work with them to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors. This approach helps the client manage their condition effectively without causing undue distress. Allowing the client to engage in compulsive behaviors can reinforce the disorder rather than alleviate it. Encouraging the client to ignore compulsive behaviors does not address the core issue of OCD. While helping the client understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors can be beneficial, actively working to reduce these behaviors is more crucial in the treatment of OCD.

2. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

3. A newly admitted client describes her mission in life as one of saving her son by eliminating the 'provocative sluts' of the world. There are several attractive young women on the unit. What should the LPN/LVN do first?

• A. Ask the client for her definition of 'provocative sluts'
• B. Ask the young female clients on the unit to dress less provocatively
• C. Ask the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session
• D. Ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to take first is to ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients. This approach is crucial as it helps in monitoring the client's thoughts and behaviors, potentially preventing any harmful actions towards others on the unit. Asking for the client's definition of 'provocative sluts' (Choice A) may not address the immediate concern of monitoring the client's harmful thoughts. Asking the young female clients to dress less provocatively (Choice B) is inappropriate and victim-blaming. Asking the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session (Choice C) may not be effective in addressing the potential harm the client's thoughts could pose to others on the unit.

4. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing a flashback. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the trauma.
• B. Help the client to focus on the present.
• C. Administer prescribed anti-anxiety medication.
• D. Leave the client alone to work through the flashback.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action is to help the client focus on the present (B), which can reduce the intensity of the flashback. Encouraging discussion of the trauma (A) should be done when the client is not actively experiencing a flashback. While medication (C) may be necessary, it is not the first priority in this situation. Leaving the client alone (D) is not appropriate as they need support to manage the flashback.

5. The LPN/LVN calls security and has physical restraints applied when a client who was admitted voluntarily becomes both physically and verbally abusive while demanding to be discharged from the hospital. Which represents the possible legal ramifications for the nurse associated with these interventions? Select one that does not apply.

• A. false imprisonment
• B. Battery
• C. Assault
• D. Slander

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the possible legal ramifications for the nurse could include battery, assault, and false imprisonment. Battery refers to the intentional harmful or offensive touching of another person without consent, which could be perceived when applying physical restraints. Assault is the apprehension of harmful or offensive contact, creating fear in the individual, which can result from the verbal threats and physical actions of the patient. False imprisonment occurs when a person is unlawfully restrained, which may apply if the patient was involuntarily restrained. Slander, on the other hand, is the oral defamation of character, which does not align with the actions described in the scenario, making it the choice that does not apply.

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