Free HESI LPN Pediatrics practice for Pediatric HESI 2023 (HESI LPN). Answer 113 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking
The nurse is caring for a child and family who just moved out of a dangerous neighborhood. Which of the following approaches is appropriate based on the family stress theory?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the child's coping abilities is appropriate based on the family stress theory because it helps the nurse understand how well the child can manage and adapt to the stressors related to the move. This assessment can guide interventions to support the child's emotional well-being and adjustment. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to assessing the child's coping abilities and may not address the child's immediate needs during this stressful time.
When assessing a child with suspected nephrotic syndrome, what clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Edema is a hallmark clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased glomerular permeability leading to the loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine. This results in decreased oncotic pressure, leading to fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces and causing edema. Jaundice (Choice A) is not a typical clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. Hypertension (Choice C) is more commonly associated with conditions like glomerulonephritis. Polyuria (Choice D) is not a primary symptom of nephrotic syndrome; instead, patients may have reduced urine output due to fluid retention from edema.
A 2-year-old child with a diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being discharged. What dietary instructions should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Avoiding gluten is not typically necessary for managing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in children. The correct dietary instruction for a 2-year-old with GERD would be to avoid high-fat foods. High-fat foods can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to increased reflux symptoms. While spicy foods and dairy products may also trigger reflux in some individuals, the primary focus should be on avoiding high-fat foods due to their direct impact on the lower esophageal sphincter, which exacerbates GERD symptoms.
A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with a suspected fracture. What is the priority nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing action when a child with a suspected fracture is brought to the emergency department is to immobilize the affected limb. Immobilization helps prevent further injury until a fracture is confirmed or ruled out. Applying ice or elevating the limb can wait until after immobilization has been achieved. Checking the child's neurovascular status is important but is not the priority action in this situation.
The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. As part of the plan of care, the nurse focuses on maintaining his cardiopulmonary function. Which intervention would the nurse implement to best promote maximum chest expansion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Upright positioning is the optimal intervention to promote maximum chest expansion in a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. By placing the child in an upright position, gravity can assist in expanding the chest cavity, facilitating better lung expansion and improving breathing efficiency. Deep-breathing exercises may be beneficial but are not as effective in maximizing chest expansion as upright positioning. Coughing and chest percussion focus more on airway clearance and are not directly aimed at promoting chest expansion.
Surgical repair for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is done to prevent the complication of
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: increased pulmonary vascular congestion. Surgical repair of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) aims to prevent the complications associated with increased pulmonary vascular congestion, such as pulmonary hypertension and heart failure. Choice A, pulmonary infection, is not a direct complication of PDA but can occur secondary to other conditions. Choice B, right-to-left shunt of blood, is a feature of some congenital heart defects but not a direct complication of PDA. Choice C, decreased workload on the left side of the heart, is not a primary reason for surgical repair of PDA, as the main concern is the impact on pulmonary circulation.
When teaching parents about preventing childhood obesity, what should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Limiting screen time is a crucial recommendation to prevent childhood obesity. Excessive screen time is associated with sedentary behavior and increased consumption of unhealthy snacks, leading to weight gain. Encouraging high-calorie snacks (Choice A) contradicts the goal of preventing obesity. While fast food as a treat (Choice C) can be consumed occasionally, it should not be encouraged as a regular practice. Allowing the child to eat freely (Choice D) without restrictions can lead to overeating and unhealthy dietary habits, contributing to obesity risk.
What is an early sign of congestive heart failure that the nurse should recognize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tachypnea is an early sign of congestive heart failure that nurses should recognize. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, which can be an indication of the body's attempt to compensate for decreased cardiac output in congestive heart failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is a slow heart rate and is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. Inability to sweat (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are not specific early signs of congestive heart failure and are not typically recognized as such.
You are called to a residence for a "sick" 5-year-old child. When you arrive and begin your assessment, you note that the child is unconscious with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. Management of this child should consist of
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a pediatric patient with an unconscious state, a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min, and a heart rate of 50 beats/min, the appropriate management involves chest compressions, artificial ventilations, and rapid transport. These signs indicate severe respiratory and circulatory compromise, requiring immediate intervention to support breathing and circulation. Choice A (100% oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask) is not sufficient in this critical situation as the child requires more than just oxygen supplementation. Choice B (positive pressure ventilations with a BVM device) may be needed, but chest compressions are crucial in this scenario due to the presence of bradycardia. Choice D (back blows and chest thrusts) are not indicated for an unconscious child with respiratory and circulatory compromise; instead, immediate chest compressions are necessary to provide circulatory support.
An infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) with exstrophy of the bladder. What covering should the nurse use to protect the exposed area?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A moist sterile dressing should be used to protect the exposed bladder tissue from infection and injury. Exstrophy of the bladder requires careful management to prevent complications such as infection. A loose diaper (Choice A) may not provide adequate protection or prevent infection. Dry gauze dressing (Choice B) may not be ideal as it could adhere to the exposed area and cause trauma upon removal. Petroleum jelly gauze pad (Choice D) may not be suitable as it can trap moisture and increase the risk of infection.
A healthcare professional is teaching parents about why most children should be immunized against varicella (chickenpox) and why some receiving specific medications should not. Which medication should be included in the discussion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Steroids. Children receiving steroids should not receive the varicella vaccine as it can increase the risk of severe infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of steroids. Insulin (Choice A), antibiotics (Choice C), and anticonvulsants (Choice D) do not interact with the varicella vaccine in the same way as steroids, and therefore, they are not contraindicated.
What is a common finding that the nurse can identify in most children with symptomatic cardiac malformations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Delayed physical growth is a common finding in most children with symptomatic cardiac malformations. This occurs due to inadequate oxygenation and nutrient supply to tissues as a result of the cardiac defect. Mental retardation (Choice A) is not typically associated with cardiac malformations unless there are complications affecting brain function. Inherited genetic factors (Choice B) may contribute to the development of cardiac malformations but are not a direct common finding in affected children. Clubbing of the fingertips (Choice D) is more commonly associated with chronic respiratory or cardiac conditions, not specifically cardiac malformations in children.
When administering IV fluids to a dehydrated infant, what intervention is most important at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring the intravenous drop rate is the most crucial intervention when administering IV fluids to a dehydrated infant. This ensures that the correct amount of fluids is being delivered to the infant at the appropriate rate. While continuing the prescribed flow rate (Choice A) may be important, it does not allow for real-time adjustments that may be necessary during the infusion. Calculating the total necessary intake (Choice C) should have been determined before initiating IV therapy. Maintaining the fluid at body temperature (Choice D) is important for patient comfort but is not as critical as ensuring the proper administration of fluids.
What should an adolescent with type 1 diabetes do if an insulin reaction is experienced while at a basketball game?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choosing option B, 'Buy a soda and hamburger to eat,' is the most appropriate action for an adolescent with type 1 diabetes experiencing an insulin reaction during a basketball game. In this situation, the individual is likely experiencing hypoglycemia, and consuming a soda provides a quick source of sugar to raise blood glucose levels rapidly. The hamburger can offer a more sustained release of energy due to its protein and fat content. Option A is incorrect because while contacting parents for help may be necessary in some situations, immediate action to address hypoglycemia is crucial. Option C is incorrect because administering insulin would further lower blood sugar levels, worsening the condition. Option D is incorrect as leaving the arena without addressing the hypoglycemia can lead to a worsening of symptoms and potentially dangerous outcomes.
What intervention best meets a major developmental need of a newborn in the immediate postoperative period?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is giving a pacifier to the newborn. Sucking is a natural reflex and a source of comfort for newborns, especially postoperatively. Offering a pacifier can help meet their developmental needs by providing comfort and a soothing mechanism. Placing a mobile over the crib (choice B) may provide visual stimulation but does not directly address the newborn's developmental needs for comfort and self-soothing. Providing a soft, cuddly toy (choice C) may offer some comfort but may not be as effective in meeting the specific developmental need for sucking postoperatively. Warming the newborn's formula before feeding (choice D) relates more to feeding practices than directly addressing a major developmental need in the postoperative period.
A child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is under the care of a nurse. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention for a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is administering nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) to manage pain and inflammation. NSAIDs are commonly used in the treatment of JIA to help alleviate symptoms. While encouraging a diet high in protein, applying heat to affected joints, and providing range-of-motion exercises are essential components of care, addressing pain and inflammation with NSAIDs is the priority intervention. This is because controlling pain and inflammation is crucial in improving the child's comfort and quality of life, which takes precedence over other supportive measures.
A 3-year-old child is being discharged after being treated for dehydration. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct! When a child is being discharged after treatment for dehydration, it is important to educate caregivers about monitoring for signs of dehydration to prevent reoccurrence. Dehydration is the primary concern in this scenario, as the child's fluid levels need to be closely monitored. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while infection, hypovolemia, and malnutrition are also important considerations in pediatric care, the immediate focus after treating dehydration should be on preventing its recurrence by monitoring for signs of dehydration.
The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old girl with an endocrine disorder involving the posterior pituitary gland. What care would the nurse expect to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a child with a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland, desmopressin acetate is commonly used to manage the condition by replacing the antidiuretic hormone. Instructing the parents to administer desmopressin acetate correctly is essential for the child's treatment. The other options are incorrect because growth hormone treatment, stopping treatment at puberty, and reporting signs of acute adrenal crisis are not directly related to managing a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland.
The nurse is caring for a 12-year-old boy with idiopathic thrombocytopenia. The nurse is providing discharge instructions about home care and safety recommendations to the boy and his parents. Which response indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B indicates a need for further teaching because participation in contact sports like football should be avoided in children with idiopathic thrombocytopenia due to the increased risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are correct. Avoiding aspirin and medications like ibuprofen helps prevent bleeding complications. Swimming is a safe physical activity that can be recommended. Antihistamines do not pose a significant risk in this case and can be used if needed.
The nurse has developed a plan of care for a 6-year-old with muscular dystrophy. He was recently injured when he fell out of bed at home. Which intervention would the nurse suggest to prevent further injury?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a child with muscular dystrophy who fell out of bed, it is important to prevent further injuries. Using bed side rails when a caregiver is not present can help provide a safety measure and prevent falls. While continuous caregiver presence (choice B) may be ideal, it may not always be feasible. Recommending raising the bed's side rails throughout the day and night (choice A) may limit the child's mobility unnecessarily. Encouraging the use of a loose restraint (choice C) can be dangerous and may increase the risk of injury in case of a fall.
A child is brought to the clinic after tripping over a rock. The child states, 'I twisted my ankle,' and is given a diagnosis of a sprain. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge instructions for this child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a sprained ankle is to apply ice for 20 minutes every hour for the first 24 hours, then remove for 60 minutes to prevent tissue damage. This regimen helps reduce swelling and pain. Bed rest with the leg elevated for an extended period (36 hours) may lead to stiffness and decreased range of motion. While NSAIDs can be used for pain, they may not be necessary if pain is manageable with ice and rest. Using a compression dressing for 72 hours continuously may impede proper circulation and delay healing by restricting blood flow.
A 5-year-old child with a diagnosis of asthma is being evaluated for medication management. What is an important assessment for the nurse to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the child's dietary intake is crucial for managing asthma symptoms as certain foods can trigger or worsen asthma attacks. Monitoring dietary intake helps ensure the child receives proper nutrition and avoids triggers. Assessing sleep patterns (Choice A) may be relevant but not as directly impactful on asthma management. Academic performance (Choice C) and behavior at home (Choice D) are important aspects of a child's overall health but are not as directly related to asthma management as dietary intake.
What are general guidelines when assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion, it is important to examine the child in the parent's arms. This approach helps reduce the child's anxiety, provides comfort, and can facilitate a more accurate assessment. Palpating the painful area of the abdomen first (choice B) may cause discomfort and increase anxiety in the child. Placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen (choice C) without considering the child's comfort and security may lead to resistance and inaccurate assessment. Separating the child from the parent to ensure a reliable examination (choice D) can further increase anxiety and hinder the assessment process. Therefore, examining the child in the parent's arms (choice A) is the most appropriate and effective approach in this scenario.
A parent brings a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome to the pediatric clinic for a physical and administration of immunizations. Which clinical finding should alert the nurse to perform a further assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Circumoral cyanosis should alert the nurse to perform further assessment in a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome. This finding may indicate cardiac or respiratory issues, such as inadequate oxygenation. Small, low-set ears and a protruding furrowed tongue are common physical characteristics associated with Down syndrome and may not necessarily warrant immediate further assessment. A flat occiput is a normal variation in infant anatomy and is not typically a cause for immediate concern in this context.
The mother of a 5-year-old boy with a myelomeningocele, who has developed a sensitivity to latex, is being taught by the nurse. Which response from his mother indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C, 'A product's label always indicates whether it is latex-free,' indicates a need for further teaching. Not all products are clearly labeled as latex-free; therefore, it is essential to verify with manufacturers and healthcare providers. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate understanding of managing latex sensitivity in the child. Wearing a medical alert identification (Choice A), informing caregivers (Choice B), and avoiding all contact with latex (Choice D) are all important aspects of managing a child's latex sensitivity.
What factor predisposes the urinary tract to infection in children?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The short urethra in young girls is a significant factor that predisposes them to urinary tract infections. Girls have a shorter urethra than boys, making it easier for bacteria to travel up the urinary tract, leading to infections. Increased fluid intake (Choice A) is actually a preventive measure as it helps flush out bacteria from the urinary tract. Prostatic secretions in males (Choice C) do not predispose the urinary tract to infection in children. Frequent emptying of the bladder (Choice D) is also a good practice to prevent urinary tract infections by reducing the chances of bacterial growth in the urinary tract.
A healthcare professional plans to discuss childhood nutrition with a group of parents whose children have Down syndrome in an attempt to minimize a common nutritional problem. What problem should be addressed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Obesity. Children with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of obesity due to various factors such as lower metabolic rate, hormonal imbalances, and reduced physical activity levels. Addressing healthy eating habits early can help prevent obesity in these children. Choice A (Rickets) is incorrect because rickets is primarily associated with vitamin D deficiency and is not a common nutritional problem in children with Down syndrome. Choice C (Anemia) is incorrect as anemia may not be a common nutritional problem specific to children with Down syndrome. Choice D (Rumination) is incorrect as rumination is a behavioral disorder characterized by repeated regurgitation of food and is not a common nutritional problem associated with Down syndrome.
A child with a diagnosis of bronchiolitis is admitted to the hospital. What is the most important nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important nursing intervention for a child with bronchiolitis is providing respiratory therapy. This intervention helps to maintain airway patency and improve breathing, which are crucial in managing bronchiolitis. Administering bronchodilators (Choice A) may be a part of the treatment plan but is not the most important intervention. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice C) is important but falls secondary to providing direct respiratory support. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice D) is also essential but does not address the immediate respiratory needs of the child with bronchiolitis.
What is an early sign of congestive heart failure that the nurse should recognize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tachypnea, which refers to rapid breathing, is an early sign of congestive heart failure. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump efficiently can lead to fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing the child to breathe faster to try to compensate for the decreased oxygen exchange. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with congestive heart failure; instead, it may indicate a different issue. Inability to sweat is not a common early sign of congestive heart failure. Increased urinary output is not a typical early sign of congestive heart failure; instead, it may be a sign of other conditions like diabetes or kidney issues.
An infant with a congenital heart defect is being given gavage feedings. The parents ask the nurse why this is necessary. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Gavage feedings are necessary for infants with congenital heart defects to conserve the infant's energy by eliminating the need for sucking. This is important because sucking requires energy expenditure, which can be taxing for infants with cardiac defects. Choice A is incorrect as gavage feedings do not primarily limit the chance of vomiting. Choice B is incorrect because the speed of feeding administration is not the primary reason for using gavage feedings in this case. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of the quantity of nutritional liquid is not the main purpose of gavage feedings in infants with congenital heart defects.
The nurse is assessing a family to determine if they have access to adequate health care. Which statement accurately describes how certain families are affected by common barriers to health care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B is the correct answer because it accurately states that White, non-Hispanic children are more likely to be in very good or excellent health compared to African American and Hispanic children. This reflects a disparity in health outcomes among different racial groups. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is unrelated to the impact of common barriers to health care on families. Choice C talks about overweight children but does not address access to health care. Choice D discusses the impact of the overall health care plan on working families but does not specifically address the disparity in health status among different racial groups.
During a primary survey of a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, what action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When managing a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, the priority action during the primary survey is to assess for a patent airway. This step is crucial as burns in this region can lead to airway compromise, potentially causing rapid deterioration in the child's condition. Checking for a patent airway ensures that the child can breathe adequately, which is essential for oxygenation and ventilation. Inspecting the child's skin color (Choice A) is an important assessment but should follow ensuring a patent airway. Observing for symmetric breathing (Choice C) is relevant, but the immediate focus should be on securing the airway. Palpating the child's pulse (Choice D) is also a vital assessment, but in this scenario, the priority is to assess and maintain a clear airway to support respiratory function and oxygen delivery.
When teaching a class about trisomy 21, the instructor would identify the cause of this disorder as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by nondisjunction, which is an error in cell division that leads to the presence of an extra chromosome 21. This additional chromosome alters the normal genetic makeup, resulting in the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is nondisjunction (Choice A). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Trisomy 21 is not caused by X-linked recessive inheritance, genomic imprinting, or autosomal dominant inheritance. Understanding the specific genetic mechanism involved in Trisomy 21 is crucial for grasping the basis of this chromosomal disorder.
A newborn with an anorectal anomaly had an anoplasty performed. At the 2-week follow-up visit, a series of anal dilations are begun. What should the nurse recommend to the parents to help prevent the infant from becoming constipated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Breastfeeding is the best recommendation to help prevent constipation in infants. Breast milk is easily digestible and contains the right balance of nutrients, which can lead to softer stools, thus reducing the likelihood of constipation. Offering a soy formula (Choice A) may not necessarily prevent constipation as effectively as breast milk due to differences in nutrient composition. Administering a suppository nightly (Choice C) is not a routine measure for preventing constipation in infants and may not be suitable for regular use in this scenario. Offering glucose water (Choice D) between feedings is not recommended as it does not provide the necessary nutrients found in breast milk, which are essential for preventing constipation and promoting overall health in newborns.
The nurse is admitting a child with a Wilms tumor. Which is the initial assessment finding associated with this tumor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Abdominal swelling is frequently the initial assessment finding associated with a Wilms tumor. This swelling is caused by the tumor's mass in the kidney, leading to abdominal distension. Weight gain (Choice B) is less likely as a primary finding, as it may occur later due to tumor growth or fluid retention. Hypotension (Choice C) is not typically associated with Wilms tumor unless severe complications like hemorrhage develop. Increased urinary output (Choice D) is not a common initial finding; instead, hematuria or other urinary changes may be observed later in the disease process.
A child with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome is under the care of a nurse. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention when caring for a child with nephrotic syndrome is to monitor urine output. This is essential to assess kidney function and evaluate the effectiveness of treatment. Administering diuretics (Choice A) may be a part of the treatment plan but should not be the priority over monitoring urine output. Administering corticosteroids (Choice C) is a common treatment for nephrotic syndrome, but monitoring urine output takes precedence. Restricting fluid intake (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority intervention compared to monitoring urine output.
A healthcare professional is assessing a child with suspected pertussis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Severe coughing spells are a hallmark clinical manifestation of pertussis. Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is characterized by paroxysms of rapid, consecutive coughs followed by a distinctive 'whoop' sound as the patient gasps for air. This intense coughing can lead to vomiting, exhaustion, and sometimes a characteristic 'whoop' sound. Inspiratory stridor (Choice B) is more commonly associated with croup, not pertussis. Nasal congestion (Choice C) is not a typical feature of pertussis. While a cough is present in pertussis, the specific type of cough described in Choice A (dry, hacking cough) is not the predominant feature observed in pertussis.
The nurse is admitting a newborn with hypospadias to the nursery. The nurse expects which finding in this newborn?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the urethral opening is located along the ventral surface of the penis, not the dorsal surface (Choice C) or absent (Choice A). This leads to the characteristic appearance of a ventrally displaced urethral meatus. The penis may appear normal in size but with the urethral opening positioned abnormally (Choice D), rather than being shorter than usual (Choice B). Therefore, the correct expectation for a newborn with hypospadias is that the urethral opening is along the ventral surface of the penis, making Choice D the correct answer.
An infant who has had diarrhea for 3 days is admitted in a lethargic state and is breathing rapidly. The parent states that the baby has been ingesting formula, although not as much as usual, and cannot understand the sudden change. What explanation should the nurse give the parent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Infants have a higher extracellular fluid requirement per unit of body weight, making them more susceptible to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances during illnesses such as diarrhea. Choice A is incorrect because cellular metabolism being unstable is not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. Choice B is incorrect as the proportion of water in the body alone does not fully explain the increased risk of dehydration in infants. Choice C is incorrect because while renal function is immature in children, it is not the most relevant factor in this scenario compared to the increased fluid requirements.
A 2-year-old child with a diagnosis of hemophilia is admitted to the hospital. What should the nurse include in the care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using a soft toothbrush helps to prevent bleeding in a child with hemophilia.
After clearing the airway of a newborn who is not in distress, what is the most important action to take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Keeping the newborn warm is crucial immediately after clearing the airway to prevent hypothermia, which can lead to complications in newborns. Administering free-flow oxygen is not necessary if the newborn is not in distress. Clamping and cutting the cord can be done after ensuring the newborn's warmth. Obtaining an APGAR score is important but can be done after ensuring the newborn is kept warm and stable.
What is the appropriate therapeutic management for children with Hirschsprung disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: surgical removal of the affected section of bowel. Hirschsprung disease is characterized by a segment of the colon lacking nerve cells, leading to obstruction. The definitive treatment involves surgically removing the affected segment, followed by a pull-through procedure to restore normal bowel continuity. Daily enemas (choice A) are not the primary treatment for Hirschsprung disease. While dietary adjustments may be advised, a low-fiber diet (choice B) alone is not curative for this condition. A permanent colostomy (choice C) is considered a last resort if surgical interventions fail or in severe cases, but it is not the initial therapeutic approach for managing Hirschsprung disease.
The nurse is providing care to a child with a long-leg hip spica cast. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Risk for impaired skin integrity due to cast and location. When caring for a child with a long-leg hip spica cast, the priority nursing diagnosis is the risk for impaired skin integrity. This is because the child's limited mobility and the pressure from the cast can lead to skin breakdown and complications. Choice B is incorrect as while education is essential, it is not the priority when immediate physical risks are present. Choice C is incorrect because while immobility can impact development, the immediate concern is preventing complications from the cast. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on self-care deficits rather than the physical risk of skin integrity issues.
A nurse is teaching the parents of a child with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus about insulin administration. What should the nurse emphasize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to rotate injection sites. Rotating injection sites is crucial in insulin administration to prevent lipodystrophy, which is the breakdown of subcutaneous fat at the injection site. It also helps ensure consistent insulin absorption. Administering insulin before meals (choice B) is important to match insulin peak action with the rise in blood glucose after eating. Storing insulin in the refrigerator (choice C) is correct to maintain its potency and stability. Administering insulin at bedtime (choice D) may not be suitable for all patients and is not a universal recommendation for insulin administration.
A 5-year-old child is diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. What is a key assessment the nurse should perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis, monitoring urine output is a crucial assessment. Acute glomerulonephritis affects the kidneys, leading to decreased urine output due to impaired kidney function. Monitoring urine output helps assess renal perfusion, fluid status, and kidney function. This assessment is essential in determining the effectiveness of treatment and identifying complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is not directly related to acute glomerulonephritis. Respiratory rate (Choice B) may be important in other conditions but is not a key assessment for acute glomerulonephritis. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice D) is important in general, but it is not specific to the primary issue of impaired kidney function in acute glomerulonephritis.
The caregiver is teaching the mother of a toddler about burn prevention. Which response by the mother indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Setting the water heater at 130 degrees is incorrect because water heaters should be set to no higher than 120 degrees to prevent scald burns. Choice A is correct as leaving fireworks displays to professionals reduces the risk of burns. Choice C is also correct as flame-retardant sleepwear reduces the risk of burn injuries. Choice D is correct as keeping pot handles facing inward prevents accidental spills and burns.
When teaching the parents of a child with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus about insulin administration, what should the nurse emphasize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to rotate injection sites. This practice helps prevent lipodystrophy, a localized loss of fat tissue that can affect insulin absorption. By rotating sites, the child can avoid developing lumps or indentations in the skin where insulin is repeatedly injected. Administering insulin before meals (choice B) may be necessary for certain types of insulin but is not the priority when teaching about insulin administration. Storing insulin in the refrigerator (choice C) is important for maintaining its potency, but it is not the primary emphasis when teaching about insulin administration. Administering insulin at bedtime (choice D) may be necessary based on the child's insulin regimen but is not the primary consideration for teaching injection techniques and site rotation.
A 6-month-old infant is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. What explanation should the nurse provide to the parents about this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'It is a condition affecting the respiratory and digestive systems.' Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems. It is caused by a defective gene that leads to the production of thick and sticky mucus in these organs. This mucus can clog airways in the lungs and block the ducts in the pancreas, affecting digestion. Choice B is incorrect because cystic fibrosis is not an autoimmune disorder; it is a genetic condition. Choice C is partially correct in that cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder, but merely managing it with medication oversimplifies the comprehensive care needed for individuals with cystic fibrosis. Choice D is incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not caused by prenatal exposure to toxins but is a genetic condition inherited from parents.
A child with a diagnosis of leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention for a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy is monitoring for signs of infection. Chemotherapy can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Detecting and managing infections promptly is crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes. Providing nutritional support is important, but infection prevention takes precedence due to the immediate threat it poses to the child's health. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is relevant in leukemia due to decreased platelet count, but infection surveillance is more critical. Monitoring for signs of pain is essential, but addressing infections promptly is the priority to prevent further deterioration in the child's condition.
The nurse is assessing a 9-year-old girl with a history of tuberculosis at age 6 years. She has been losing weight and has no appetite. The nurse suspects Addison disease based on which assessment findings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a child with suspected Addison disease, the presence of hyperpigmentation (bronzing of the skin) and hypotension are key clinical findings. Hyperpigmentation is due to increased ACTH stimulation, resulting in melanocyte stimulation. Hypotension occurs due to decreased aldosterone production and subsequent sodium loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Arrested height and increased weight are not typical of Addison disease; thin, fragile skin and multiple bruises are more indicative of conditions like Cushing's syndrome; blurred vision and enuresis are not typically associated with Addison disease.
When you attempt to assess a 22-year-old woman who has been sexually assaulted, and she orders you not to touch her, your most appropriate initial action should be to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the patient has requested not to be touched, indicating a need for sensitivity and understanding. Asking a female EMT-B to attempt to assess the patient is the most appropriate initial action as it respects the patient's need for privacy, comfort, and potentially reduces re-traumatization. Asking the patient to sign a release form (Choice A) is not suitable as it disregards the patient's immediate concerns. Explaining to the patient that she must be examined (Choice C) may further distress her and violate her autonomy. Transporting the patient without performing an assessment (Choice D) ignores the patient's expressed wishes and may lead to inadequate care.
The nurse is caring for a 3-day-old girl with Down syndrome whose mother had no prenatal care. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn with Down syndrome is often related to feeding difficulties due to hypotonia, making imbalanced nutrition the primary concern. Hypotonia, or poor muscle tone, can lead to challenges with feeding and, subsequently, affect the baby's nutritional intake. While choices B, C, and D may also be concerns for a child with Down syndrome, addressing the immediate need for adequate nutrition takes precedence to ensure the infant's well-being and growth.
A 5-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention for a 5-year-old child admitted to the hospital with bacterial meningitis is to isolate the child. Isolating the child is crucial to prevent the spread of infection to others, as bacterial meningitis is highly contagious. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important in the treatment of bacterial meningitis, but isolating the child takes precedence to protect others. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) and administering fluids (Choice D) are essential aspects of care for a child with meningitis but are not the priority intervention to prevent the spread of the infection.
A child with a diagnosis of leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention for a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy is monitoring for signs of infection. Chemotherapy can suppress the immune system, putting the child at a higher risk of developing infections. Early detection of signs of infection is crucial to prevent serious complications and initiate timely treatment. Providing nutritional support is important for overall health but is not the priority when the child is at risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential, but infection surveillance takes precedence due to the immediate threat it poses to the child's health. Monitoring for signs of pain is important for comfort but is not the priority over infection prevention and management.
When caring for a 2-year-old girl who is wheezing and has difficulty breathing, which interview question would provide the most useful information related to the symptoms of the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asking the parents if they smoke in the home is the most relevant question as exposure to secondhand smoke can exacerbate respiratory symptoms like wheezing and difficulty breathing in children. This information is crucial for identifying potential triggers for the child's symptoms. Inquiring about child safety in the home, asking about the child's temperament, and inquiring about the child's diet, while important aspects of care, may not directly address the respiratory symptoms the child is experiencing.
A parent asks the nurse what to do when their toddler has temper tantrums. What play materials should the nurse suggest to offer the child as another way of expressing anger?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pegs and pounding boards are recommended as play materials for toddlers to express their anger in a constructive manner. These tools provide a safe and effective outlet for the child's emotions through physical activity. Options A, B, and C do not offer the same interactive and expressive qualities that pegs and pounding boards provide. A ball and bat may encourage aggressive behavior, a wad of clay is more suitable for creative expression rather than anger management, and a punching bag may promote violent behavior which is not appropriate for toddlers.
After a discussion with the healthcare provider, the parents of an infant with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) ask the nurse to explain once again what PDA is. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is an abnormal connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta. In a fetus, the ductus arteriosus is a normal connection between these two vessels, allowing blood to bypass the lungs. However, it should close shortly after birth. When it remains open (patent), it leads to PDA. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe PDA. Choice A describes an enlarged aorta, choice B describes a ventricular septal defect, and choice C describes pulmonary stenosis, which are different cardiac conditions.
A child with diabetes insipidus is being treated with vasopressin. The nurse would assess the child closely for signs and symptoms of which condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Vasopressin is a medication used to treat diabetes insipidus by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. However, an excessive dose of vasopressin can lead to water retention, causing SIADH, which is characterized by dilutional hyponatremia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Thyroid storm is a severe form of hyperthyroidism characterized by increased metabolism and can lead to life-threatening complications. Cushing syndrome results from excess cortisol production and is characterized by weight gain, hypertension, and other features. Vitamin D toxicity occurs due to an overdose of vitamin D, leading to hypercalcemia and symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and weakness.
A group of students is reviewing information about the various types of insulin used to treat type 1 diabetes. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of these insulins as having the longest duration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Glargine (Lantus) as it has the longest duration of action among the insulins listed, lasting 12 to 24 hours. Lispro (A) and Regular (B) are rapid-acting insulins with shorter durations of action. NPH (C) is an intermediate-acting insulin with a duration of action of about 12-16 hours. Therefore, Glargine is the correct choice for the insulin with the longest duration.
A nurse plans to talk to the parents of a toddler about toilet training. What should the nurse explain is the most important factor in the process of toilet training?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial factor in the process of toilet training is the parents' willingness to consistently engage and work with their child. While parents' attitude and the child's desire to remain dry can influence the process, the key to successful toilet training lies in the parents' commitment and effort. The child's ability to sit still on the toilet is important but not as critical as the parents' active involvement and support in guiding and encouraging the child through the training process.
A child with a diagnosis of hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with a bleeding episode. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is administering factor VIII. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency in clotting factors, such as factor VIII. Administering factor VIII is crucial in managing bleeding episodes in hemophiliac patients. Pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice B) is important for overall care but is not the priority during a bleeding episode. Ensuring a safe environment (Choice D) is also important but not the priority intervention when managing a bleeding episode in a child with hemophilia.
When working with a couple at risk of bearing a child with a genetic abnormality, what is most important for the nurse to incorporate into the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When counseling a couple at risk of genetic abnormalities, it is crucial to present information in a nondirective manner. This approach allows the couple to make informed decisions without feeling pressured or influenced. Gathering information from at least three generations (Choice A) may be relevant for genetic counseling but is not the most critical aspect in this scenario. Informing the couple of the need for a wide range of information (Choice B) is too general and does not address the specific approach needed in this situation. Maintaining the confidentiality of the information (Choice C) is important but not the top priority compared to presenting information in a nondirective manner.
An instructor is developing a plan for a class of nursing students on various skin disorders. When describing urticaria, what would the instructor include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Urticaria is a type I hypersensitivity reaction, not type IV. When triggered, histamine release leads to vasodilation, causing characteristic wheals. Wheals are typically followed by erythema. The rash in urticaria is pruritic and does blanch with pressure, unlike the nonpruritic rash described in choice D. Therefore, the most appropriate description of urticaria includes histamine release and vasodilation, as stated in choice B.
A nurse is planning an initial home care visit to a mother who gave birth to a high-risk infant. For what time of day should the nurse schedule the visit for it to be most productive?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Scheduling the visit at a time that is convenient for the family is the most appropriate choice. This ensures that the family is receptive and available, making the visit more productive. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of the husband may be important for support and decision-making. Choice B focuses solely on the mother and the infant's feeding time, which may not align with the family's overall availability. Choice D is incorrect as it emphasizes the nurse's convenience rather than the family's, which may not lead to an effective visit.
A 3-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention for a 3-year-old child with Kawasaki disease is monitoring for coronary artery aneurysms. Kawasaki disease can lead to the development of coronary artery aneurysms, which are one of the most serious complications of the disease. Early detection and monitoring of coronary artery changes are essential for prompt intervention and prevention of adverse outcomes. Administering IV immunoglobulin is an important treatment for Kawasaki disease, but monitoring for coronary artery aneurysms takes precedence as it directly impacts the child's long-term prognosis. Encouraging fluid intake and providing nutritional support are important aspects of care but are not the priority when compared to monitoring for potential life-threatening complications.
When counseling a couple who suspect they could have a child with a genetic abnormality, what would be most important for the nurse to incorporate into the plan of care when working with this family?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When counseling a couple about the possibility of having a child with a genetic abnormality, it is vital for the nurse to present information in a nondirective manner. This approach empowers the couple to make decisions based on their values and preferences, respecting their autonomy. Gathering information from three generations (Choice A) may not be necessary and might overwhelm the couple with unnecessary data. Informing the family about the need for a wide range of information (Choice B) is not as critical as supporting their decision-making process through a nondirective approach. While maintaining confidentiality (Choice C) is crucial, it is not the most important aspect compared to ensuring the couple can make informed choices that align with their beliefs and wishes.
Following corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), an infant is returned to the pediatric unit with an IV infusion in place. What is the priority nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing action after a corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is to assess the IV site for infiltration. This is crucial to ensure proper fluid administration and prevent complications such as extravasation or infiltration. Applying restraints (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario and can compromise the infant's comfort and safety. Administering a mild sedative (Choice B) is not necessary and should only be done based on specific clinical indications. Attaching the nasogastric tube to wall suction (Choice D) may be important for certain conditions but is not the priority immediately post-surgery; assessing the IV site is more urgent to prevent potential complications related to IV therapy.
When obtaining a health history from parents of a 4-month-old boy with congenital hypothyroidism, what would the nurse most likely assess?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In congenital hypothyroidism, infants often experience lethargy and difficulty staying awake due to low thyroid hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect as hypothyroidism can lead to poor growth in infants. Choice B is incorrect because hypothyroidism can cause decreased activity levels and lethargy rather than being active and playful. Choice C is incorrect as hypothyroidism can result in dry skin and poor skin tone, not necessarily pink and healthy-looking skin.
When caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula, what nursing care should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula, it is essential to elevate the head and avoid giving anything by mouth. Elevating the head helps prevent aspiration, and withholding oral intake reduces the risk of complications like aspiration pneumonia. Elevating the head at all times (choice B) is overly restrictive and unnecessary. Administering glucose water only during feedings (choice C) is not recommended as it can still lead to aspiration. Avoiding suctioning unless the infant is cyanotic (choice D) is incorrect because maintaining airway patency may require suctioning, irrespective of cyanosis, in a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula.
Following delivery of a newborn, the 21-year-old mother is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding. You note that her heart rate has increased from 90 to 120 beats/min and she is diaphoretic. Management should include
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Postpartum hemorrhage can lead to shock due to excessive bleeding. Oxygen should be provided to support oxygenation. Treatment for shock, which includes maintaining vital signs and perfusion, is crucial. Uterine massage helps prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contraction. This combination of interventions is essential for managing postpartum hemorrhage effectively. Choices A, B, and D lack the comprehensive approach needed for managing postpartum hemorrhage, as they do not address the treatment of shock, which is vital in this scenario.
A 6-year-old child comes to the school nurse reporting a sore throat, and the nurse verifies that the child has a fever and a red, inflamed throat. When a parent of the child arrives at school to take the child home, the nurse urges the parent to seek treatment. The nurse is aware that the causative agent may be beta-hemolytic streptococcus, and the illness may progress to inflamed joints and an infection in the heart. What illness is of most concern to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can develop as a complication of untreated strep throat caused by beta-hemolytic streptococcus. It is characterized by inflamed joints and can lead to serious complications such as heart infections. Tetanus (choice A) is caused by a bacterial toxin affecting the nervous system, Influenza (choice B) is a viral respiratory illness, and Scarlet fever (choice C) is also caused by streptococcus but is characterized by a sandpaper-like rash and strawberry tongue. However, in the scenario described, the nurse is most concerned about the child developing rheumatic fever due to the potential serious consequences associated with it.
The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Visible peristalsis and weight loss are classic clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis. The obstruction at the pyloric sphincter causes visible peristalsis as the stomach tries to push food through the narrowed opening, leading to the appearance of waves across the abdomen. Weight loss occurs due to poor feeding and frequent vomiting associated with pyloric stenosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation, rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds, as well as distention of the lower abdomen and constipation are not typically seen in pyloric stenosis.
A newborn is diagnosed with metatarsus adductus. The parents ask the nurse how this occurred. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Metatarsus adductus is a condition where the front part of the foot is turned inward. It is often caused by the baby's position in the womb, leading to pressure on the foot during fetal development. Choice A is incorrect as metatarsus adductus is not primarily caused by a genetic defect in the bones. Choice C is incorrect as the cause of metatarsus adductus is known to be related to intrauterine positioning. Choice D is incorrect as metatarsus adductus specifically pertains to the foot and not the hip.
The nurse is planning a discussion group for parents with children who have cancer. How would the nurse describe a difference between cancer in children and adults?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Most childhood cancers, such as leukemias and sarcomas, affect tissues rather than specific organs, unlike many adult cancers. Choice B is incorrect because childhood cancers may not always be localized when found. Choice C is incorrect as childhood cancers can be responsive to treatment, although treatment approaches may differ from adult cancers. Choice D is incorrect as the majority of childhood cancers cannot be prevented; however, certain risk factors can be managed to reduce the risk of developing cancer.
A nurse is caring for a child with a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is preventing infection. In caring for a child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), preventing infection is the priority nursing intervention. Children with ALL are immunocompromised due to the disease and its treatment, making them more susceptible to infections. Administering chemotherapy, while important, is not the priority as preventing infection takes precedence to avoid complications. Monitoring for signs of bleeding and providing nutritional support are also essential components of care for a child with ALL, but preventing infection is the priority to ensure the child's safety and well-being.
Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.
While performing a visual inspection of a 30-year-old woman in active labor, you can see the umbilical cord at the vaginal opening. After providing high concentration oxygen, you should next
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario described, when the umbilical cord is visible at the vaginal opening, the priority is to relieve pressure from the cord with gloved fingers. This action helps prevent cord compression and ensures continued oxygenation to the fetus, which is crucial for the baby's well-being. Massaging the uterus or elevating the mother's lower extremities is not the correct course of action in this situation and may potentially worsen the condition. Placing the mother on her left side and providing rapid transport is not the immediate step needed to address the visible umbilical cord; relieving pressure from the cord takes precedence to maintain fetal oxygen supply.
A parent asks the nurse what to do when their toddler has temper tantrums. What play materials should the nurse suggest to offer the child as another way of expressing anger?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pegs and pounding boards are the most suitable choice for toddlers to express their emotions constructively. These materials provide a safe and acceptable way for toddlers to release anger and frustration through physical activity. Options A, B, and C may not be as effective or safe for toddlers dealing with temper tantrums. A ball and bat may encourage aggressive behavior rather than constructive expression. A wad of clay might not be ideal for channeling anger, and a punching bag can potentially promote violent behavior, which is not appropriate for toddlers.
A nurse is assessing a 2-year-old child with suspected Down syndrome. What characteristic physical feature is the nurse likely to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Epicanthal folds are a distinctive physical feature commonly observed in individuals with Down syndrome. These are horizontal skin folds that cover the inner corners of the eyes. Webbed neck (choice B) is not typically associated with Down syndrome but can be seen in conditions like Turner syndrome. Enlarged head (choice C) is not a characteristic feature of Down syndrome; however, individuals with hydrocephalus may present with this finding. Polydactyly (choice D) is the presence of extra fingers or toes, which is not a typical feature of Down syndrome.
When caring for an alert 4-year-old child with a mild airway obstruction, respiratory distress, a strong cough, and normal skin color, what should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct approach for a child with a mild airway obstruction, respiratory distress, and normal skin color includes providing oxygen to support breathing, avoiding agitation that could worsen the situation, and arranging for transport to a healthcare facility. Option A is incorrect because abdominal thrusts are not recommended in a mild airway obstruction scenario, and back blows are typically used for choking. Option C is incorrect because assisting ventilations may not be necessary in a child with a strong cough and normal skin color. Option D is incorrect because chest thrusts are not recommended for a mild airway obstruction, and finger sweeps are used for foreign body airway obstructions.
What behavior is essential for preventing in a child postoperatively after undergoing heart surgery to repair defects associated with tetralogy of Fallot?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Preventing straining at stool is crucial postoperatively after heart surgery for tetralogy of Fallot to avoid increasing intrathoracic pressure and placing stress on the surgical site. This can help prevent complications and promote faster healing. While crying, coughing, and unnecessary movement are common postoperative behaviors, they are not specifically linked to worsening outcomes in this context. Straining at stool is particularly emphasized due to its potential to impact the surgical site and overall recovery process.
Upon assessing a newborn immediately after delivery, you note that the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What is the most appropriate initial management for this newborn?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a newborn, a heart rate below 100 beats/min indicates the need for positive pressure ventilation to improve oxygenation. Providing blow-by oxygen or assessing skin condition/color may not address the primary issue of inadequate oxygenation due to the low heart rate. Starting chest compressions and contacting medical control is not warranted as the newborn is breathing spontaneously and only has a slightly low heart rate, which can be managed initially with positive pressure ventilations.
A nurse on the pediatric unit is observing the developmental skills of several 2-year-old children in the playroom. Which child should the nurse continue to evaluate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because using echolalia (repeating words or phrases) is not typical for a 2-year-old and may indicate the need for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and D are within the expected developmental skills for a 2-year-old. While a 2-year-old may not be able to stand on one foot for an extended period, it is not a concerning developmental milestone at this age. Building a tower of 7 blocks and coloring outside the lines of a picture are both age-appropriate activities that demonstrate fine motor skills and creativity, respectively. However, echolalia at this age could be a sign of an underlying communication or developmental issue that warrants further assessment and monitoring.
A healthcare provider is assessing a child with suspected rheumatic fever. What clinical manifestation is the provider likely to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Severe joint pain is a classic symptom of rheumatic fever, resulting from inflammation of the joints. Rheumatic fever primarily affects the joints, heart, skin, and the central nervous system. Jaundice (Choice A) is not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Peeling skin on the hands and feet (Choice B) is more characteristic of conditions like Kawasaki disease. While high fever (Choice C) can be present in rheumatic fever, it is not as specific or characteristic as severe joint pain.
Why does a cleft lip predispose an infant to infection, concerning a nurse caring for the infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mouth breathing due to a cleft lip can dry the mucous membranes, increasing their susceptibility to infection. While waste product accumulation (Choice A) and inadequate circulation (Choice B) may contribute to complications, they are not directly related to infection in this context. Inadequate nutrition (Choice C) may affect overall health but is not the primary reason for infection predisposition in this case.
What behavior does a toddler subjected to prolonged hospitalization with limited parental visits typically exhibit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Toddlers subjected to prolonged hospitalization with limited parental visits usually exhibit a limited emotional response to the environment. This behavior can be a coping mechanism for the child in dealing with the separation from their primary caregivers. The child might not show the same level of engagement or emotional expression as they would if their parents were present. Choices A, B, and C are less likely because the child's emotional response is typically more subdued and withdrawn in such circumstances, rather than being cheerful, consistently sad, or excessively crying.
A nurse is assessing a child with suspected pertussis. What clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Severe coughing spells. Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, typically presents with severe coughing spells that can be followed by a characteristic 'whoop' sound. These coughing fits can be intense and prolonged, often causing the child to gasp for air between coughs. Option A, dry hacking cough, is a common symptom of other respiratory conditions like bronchitis. Option B, inspiratory stridor, is more commonly associated with conditions like croup. Option C, nasal congestion, is not a typical symptom of pertussis.
What factor predisposes the urinary tract to infection in children?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The short urethra in young girls predisposes them to urinary tract infections. In young girls, the proximity of the urethra to the anus and the shorter urethra compared to boys make it easier for bacteria to travel up the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection. Increased fluid intake and frequent emptying of the bladder are actually helpful in preventing urinary tract infections by flushing out bacteria. Prostatic secretions in males are not a factor in predisposing the urinary tract to infection in children.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an oral medication to a 4-year-old child. What is the best approach to gain the child's cooperation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Allowing the child to play with a favorite toy while taking the medication is the best approach to gain the child's cooperation. This strategy can help distract and calm the child, making the medication administration process smoother. Explaining the medication's importance (Choice A) may not be as effective in gaining immediate cooperation from a young child who may not fully understand. Offering a reward after the medication is taken (Choice C) may create a dependency on rewards for cooperation. Giving the medication mixed with food (Choice D) may not always be appropriate or recommended, especially if the child needs to take the medication on an empty stomach.
During a primary survey of a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, what action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Assess for a patent airway. When dealing with a child who has sustained partial thickness burns, the priority is ensuring a patent airway due to the risk of respiratory compromise. Checking the child's skin color (choice A) may be important but is secondary to assessing the airway. While observing for symmetric breathing (choice C) is crucial, assessing the airway takes precedence in this situation. Palpating the child's pulse (choice D) is not the initial priority when managing burns and potential airway compromise.
A 16-year-old is suspected of having type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which clinical manifestation may be present?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Poor wound healing is a common clinical manifestation of type 1 diabetes mellitus. High blood glucose levels in diabetes can impair the body's ability to heal wounds effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Moist skin is not a typical clinical manifestation of type 1 diabetes; instead, skin may become dry due to dehydration. Weight gain is unlikely as type 1 diabetes is characterized by weight loss. Fluid overload is also uncommon in type 1 diabetes, which is more commonly associated with dehydration due to frequent urination.
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child with Addison's disease. What would the nurse expect to find?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In Addison's disease, adrenal insufficiency leads to decreased aldosterone production. The decreased aldosterone results in impaired sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion, leading to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is unlikely because sodium reabsorption is impaired. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not a typical lab finding in Addison's disease. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not associated with Addison's disease; rather, it can be seen in conditions like hyperparathyroidism.
What is an important nursing consideration for a child with a diagnosis of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) being treated with methotrexate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor liver function tests regularly. Methotrexate, commonly used in JIA, can be hepatotoxic. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage early. While encouraging regular exercise (choice B) is generally beneficial for overall health, it is not directly related to methotrexate therapy. Providing high-calorie snacks (choice C) is not a necessary consideration in this context and can be misleading. Encouraging frequent handwashing (choice D) is important for infection control but is not specifically related to the medication methotrexate.
During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classification. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Full-thickness burns are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial burns, which are not full-thickness. Choice B describes characteristics of partial-thickness burns with intact blisters, not full-thickness burns. Choice C describes characteristics of partial-thickness burns with blistering and swelling, not full-thickness burns.
A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being discharged from the hospital. What is important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Recognizing signs of hypoglycemia is essential for managing type 1 diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia, which occurs when blood glucose levels drop too low, can be dangerous and requires immediate intervention to prevent severe complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels more frequently than once a day, following a strict meal plan, and administering insulin only when blood glucose is high are important aspects of diabetes management but recognizing signs of hypoglycemia is crucial as it enables prompt action to prevent adverse outcomes.
A healthcare provider is assessing a 3-month-old infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare provider likely to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Projectile vomiting is a classic clinical manifestation of pyloric stenosis in infants. This occurs due to the narrowing of the pyloric sphincter, leading to the forceful expulsion of gastric contents in a projectile manner. Diarrhea (choice B) is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Constipation (choice C) is also not a common symptom of this condition. Abdominal distension (choice D) may occur in pyloric stenosis but is not as specific or characteristic as projectile vomiting in diagnosing this condition.
An infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is admitted to the pediatric unit. What does the nurse expect when palpating the infant's abdomen?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When palpating the abdomen of an infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), the nurse would expect to feel an olive-sized mass in the right upper quadrant. This finding is characteristic of HPS due to the hypertrophied pylorus muscle. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A distended colon is not typically associated with HPS. Marked tenderness around the umbilicus is not a specific finding of HPS. Rhythmic peristaltic waves in the lower abdomen are not expected in HPS, as the condition primarily affects the pylorus region of the stomach.
An infant with a congenital heart defect is being given gavage feedings. The parents ask the nurse why this is necessary. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'The energy that would have been expended on sucking is conserved.' Gavage feedings are necessary for infants with congenital heart defects as they help conserve the infant's energy by eliminating the need for sucking, which can be taxing for infants with cardiac issues. Choice A is incorrect because gavage feedings are not primarily used to limit vomiting. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the main reason for gavage feedings in this case. Choice D is incorrect because the regulation of the quantity of nutritional liquid is not the primary rationale for gavage feedings in infants with congenital heart defects.
When explaining a viral disease that begins with malaise and a highly pruritic rash starting on the abdomen, spreading to the face and proximal extremities, and potentially leading to severe complications, which childhood disease is a nurse discussing with members of a grammar school's Parent-Teachers Association?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Chickenpox (varicella). This viral disease typically starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen and then spreads to the face and proximal extremities. Chickenpox can result in serious complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a milder rash and is less pruritic than chickenpox. Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a rash that spreads from the head to the trunk. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria and is not a viral illness.
A parent arrives in the emergency clinic with a 3-month-old baby who has difficulty breathing and prolonged periods of apnea. Which assessment data should alert the nurse to suspect shaken baby syndrome (SBS)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Retractions and the use of accessory respiratory muscles are signs of respiratory distress in infants. These clinical manifestations can be associated with trauma, such as shaken baby syndrome (SBS), which can lead to severe head injuries and respiratory compromise. Birth before 32 weeks' gestation (Choice A) is more related to prematurity complications rather than SBS. The absence of stridor and adventitious breath sounds (Choice B) may not be specific indicators of SBS. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds (Choice C) alone may not be as concerning as the presence of retractions and use of accessory muscles in the context of a distressed infant.
What is the nurse's priority intervention when preparing for admission of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to place a tracheotomy set at the bedside. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis can cause airway obstruction, which may require an emergency tracheotomy. Having the tracheotomy set readily available ensures quick access in case of respiratory distress. Padding the side rails of the crib, arranging for a quiet, cool room, and obtaining a recliner for a parent are important aspects of care but are not the priority when managing a potentially life-threatening airway emergency.
A 13-year-old girl tells the nurse at the pediatric clinic that she took a pregnancy test and it was positive. She adds that her grandfather, with whom she, her younger sisters, and her mother live, has repeatedly molested her for the past 3 years. When the nurse asks the girl if she has told this to anyone, she replies, 'Yes, but my mother doesn't believe me.' Legally, who should the nurse notify?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases of child abuse and ongoing molestation, as described in the scenario, the primary concern is the safety and well-being of the child. Child Protective Services should be notified immediately for intervention to protect the girl and other children in the household from further harm. The police may be involved later to investigate the criminal aspect of the abuse. Notifying the healthcare provider solely to confirm the pregnancy or informing the girl's mother about the positive test result does not address the urgent need for intervention and protection from abuse. Child Protective Services are trained to handle such cases and provide the necessary support and protection for the child and other vulnerable individuals in the family. Immediate action is crucial to ensure the girl's safety and prevent further harm.
While assessing a child admitted for an asthma attack, a nurse in the emergency department observes large welts and scars on the child's back. What additional information must be included in the nurse's assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Signs of child abuse. When a nurse observes large welts and scars on a child, it raises concern for possible child abuse. It is crucial for the nurse to assess further for signs of abuse, document findings, and report appropriately to protect the child. Choice A, history of an injury, is not specific to potential abuse and may not provide insight into the current situation. Choice C, presence of food allergies, is not directly related to the observed welts and scars. Choice D, recent recovery from chickenpox, is also unrelated to the signs of abuse and does not impact the immediate assessment of the child's safety.
A group of students is reviewing information about the endocrine system in infants and children. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they state:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement is that infants may have difficulty balancing glucose and electrolytes because their endocrine systems are immature. Newborns have developing endocrine glands that are not yet fully functional, leading to challenges in maintaining glucose and electrolyte balance. Choice A is incorrect as endocrine glands start developing in the first trimester, not the third trimester. Choice B is incorrect as endocrine glands are not fully functional at birth. Choice D is incorrect because while a child's endocrine system indeed plays a vital role in growth and development, the specific focus of the question is on the challenges infants face due to immature endocrine glands.
Parents of a sick infant talk with a nurse about their baby. One parent says, "I am so upset; I didn't realize our baby was ill." What major indication of illness in an infant should the nurse explain to the parent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Longer periods of sleep than usual can be a sign of illness in infants. When an infant sleeps more than usual, it can indicate that the baby is conserving energy due to an underlying condition. Grunting respirations (choice A) can be a sign of respiratory distress, not just an indication of illness. Excessive perspiration (choice B) can occur due to various reasons and is not a specific major indication of illness. Crying immediately after feedings (choice D) is a common behavior in infants and not necessarily a major indication of illness.
A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Surfactant therapy is explained to parents as a treatment that enhances the lungs' ability to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide. This is essential for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) as it helps improve their respiratory function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because surfactant therapy primarily focuses on addressing lung function and is not related to sedation, apnea reduction, or fighting respiratory tract infections.
A child with a diagnosis of congenital heart disease is admitted to the hospital. What should the nurse include in the child's care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring fluid status is crucial for a child with congenital heart disease because these children are at risk of fluid overload, which can exacerbate their condition. Monitoring fluid intake and output helps prevent complications such as heart failure. Encouraging activity may be important, but it should be done cautiously and within limits due to the child's cardiac condition. Promoting a high-calorie diet is not typically a priority in congenital heart disease care unless there are specific indications. Maintaining oxygen therapy may be necessary in some cases but is not the primary intervention for managing congenital heart disease.
A nurse is evaluating a 3-year-old child's developmental progress. The inability to perform which task indicates to the nurse that there is a developmental delay?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Copying a square. At 3 years old, children should be able to copy a square as part of their fine motor skill development. The inability to perform this task may indicate a developmental delay in fine motor skills. Choice B, hopping on one foot, typically develops around 4-5 years of age, so it is not a reliable indicator of a delay at 3. Choice C, catching a ball reliably, involves coordination skills that develop later in childhood, making it less relevant for a 3-year-old assessment. Choice D, using a spoon effectively, is more related to self-care and feeding skills rather than fine motor development, so it is not the best indicator of a developmental delay in this context.
The parents of a newborn with phenylketonuria (PKU) need help and support in adhering to specific dietary restrictions. They ask the nurse, "How long will our child have to be on this diet?" How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: "This is a lifelong problem, and it is recommended that dietary restrictions must be continued." Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder where the body cannot process phenylalanine properly. The diet for PKU must be continued lifelong to prevent cognitive and developmental issues, as phenylalanine buildup can cause irreversible damage. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should provide information about the lifelong nature of the dietary restrictions for PKU. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests reintroducing protein-containing foods, which is not recommended for individuals with PKU. Choice C is incorrect as it underestimates the duration of the necessary dietary restrictions for PKU.
During a routine monthly examination, a 5-month-old infant is brought to the pediatric clinic. What assessment finding should alert the nurse to notify the health care provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute in a 5-month-old infant is considered high and may indicate respiratory distress. Infants normally have a higher respiratory rate than older children and adults, but a rate of 50 breaths per minute is above the expected range. This finding warrants immediate attention as it may be indicative of an underlying respiratory issue or distress. Choice A (Temperature of 99.5°F) is within the normal range for body temperature and does not necessarily indicate a critical issue. Choice B (Blood pressure of 75/48 mm Hg) is not typically assessed in isolation for a 5-month-old infant during a routine examination, and the values provided are not indicative of a critical condition. Choice C (Heart rate of 100 beats per minute) is within the normal range for heart rate in infants and may not be a cause for immediate concern during a routine examination.
At 2 years of age, a child is readmitted to the hospital for additional surgery. What is the most important factor in preparing the toddler for this experience?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important factor in preparing a toddler for additional surgery is their previous experience of hospitalization. This familiarity can help reduce anxiety and fear associated with the hospital environment and medical procedures. Choice A, satisfying the child's wishes, may not always be feasible or in the child's best interest during medical procedures. Choice C, preventing the child from being with strangers, may not address the core issue of preparing the child for surgery. Choice D, ensuring the child still receives parental affection, is important but may not directly address the preparation needed for surgery.
The parent of a 2-year-old child is informed by the nurse that the toddler's negativism is expected at this age. What need is this behavior meeting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Negativism in toddlers commonly occurs around the age of 2 as they begin to assert their independence and autonomy. At this stage, children are exploring their own will and preferences, leading to behaviors like defiance or negativism. Independence (choice D) is the primary need being met by this behavior as toddlers strive to establish their individuality and decision-making. While trust (choice A) is crucial for forming secure attachments, it is not the main need driving negativism in this case. Seeking attention (choice B) may be a behavior exhibited by children, but it is not the fundamental need being fulfilled by negativism. Discipline (choice C) is important for setting boundaries and teaching appropriate conduct, but it is not the primary need being addressed by negativism in toddlers.
During the second week of hospitalization for intravenous antibiotic therapy, a 2-year-old toddler whose family is unable to visit often smiles easily, goes to all the nurses happily, and does not express interest in the parent when the parent does visit. The parent tells the nurse, 'I am pleased about the adjustment but somewhat concerned about my child's reaction to me.' How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. The child's behavior of smiling easily, interacting happily with nurses, and showing disinterest in the parent when they visit indicates that the child has emotionally withdrawn and accepted the separation. This response suggests that the child may have given up fighting against the separation from the parent due to prolonged hospitalization. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A about the child repressing feelings towards the parent is not supported by the scenario. Choice B about routines and feeling safe does not address the emotional aspect of the child's behavior. Choice D about improved behavior due to feeling better physically does not explain the emotional dynamics at play in the child's behavior.
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