HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI 2023
1. A child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy is to receive prednisone as part of their treatment plan. After teaching the child's parents about this drug, which statement by the parents indicates the need for additional teaching?
- A. We should give this drug after he eats something.
- B. We need to watch carefully for possible infections.
- C. The drug should not be stopped abruptly.
- D. He might experience weight gain with this drug.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement should be, 'We should give this drug after he eats something.' Prednisone should be administered with food to help prevent gastrointestinal upset. Choice B is correct as monitoring for infections is important due to prednisone's immunosuppressive effects. Choice C is correct as prednisone should not be stopped suddenly to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is correct as weight gain is a common side effect of prednisone.
2. When assessing a child with suspected nephrotic syndrome, what clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Edema
- C. Hypertension
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Edema is a hallmark clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased glomerular permeability leading to the loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine. This results in decreased oncotic pressure, leading to fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces and causing edema. Jaundice (Choice A) is not a typical clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. Hypertension (Choice C) is more commonly associated with conditions like glomerulonephritis. Polyuria (Choice D) is not a primary symptom of nephrotic syndrome; instead, patients may have reduced urine output due to fluid retention from edema.
3. When teaching a class about trisomy 21, the instructor would identify the cause of this disorder as:
- A. nondisjunction.
- B. X-linked recessive inheritance.
- C. genomic imprinting.
- D. autosomal dominant inheritance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: nondisjunction. Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by nondisjunction, which is an error in cell division leading to an extra copy of chromosome 21. This additional genetic material alters the course of development and causes the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. X-linked recessive inheritance refers to genetic disorders carried on the X chromosome, genomic imprinting involves gene expression based on parental origin, and autosomal dominant inheritance relates to disorders caused by a dominant gene on one of the non-sex chromosomes. In the case of trisomy 21, the cause is specifically related to the error in chromosome division, making nondisjunction the most appropriate answer.
4. What is one of the most important factors that a healthcare professional must consider when parents of a toddler request to be present at a procedure occurring on the hospital unit?
- A. Type of procedure to be performed
- B. Individual assessment of the parents
- C. Whether the toddler wants the parents present
- D. Probable reaction to the toddler’s response to pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When parents of a toddler request to be present during a procedure, it is crucial to conduct an individual assessment of the parents. This assessment helps healthcare professionals understand the parents' ability to cope with the procedure, provide support to their child, and ensure a safe and comfortable environment for all involved. Choice A, the type of procedure to be performed, while important, is not the most critical factor in this scenario. Choice C, whether the toddler wants the parents present, is significant but secondary to assessing the parents themselves. Choice D, probable reaction to the toddler’s response to pain, is important but focuses more on the child's reaction rather than the parents' capacity to provide appropriate support.
5. Why is the infant scheduled to receive the intramuscular polio vaccine instead of the oral vaccine, as asked by the parents?
- A. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular vaccine because it is safer.
- B. Both vaccines produce the same results and are equally safe, according to consensus.
- C. The intramuscular vaccine is preferred over the oral vaccine due to cost considerations, unless contraindicated.
- D. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends the intramuscular vaccine unless the infant or a family member is immunocompromised.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular polio vaccine over the oral vaccine due to its superior safety profile. Intramuscular administration ensures better immunogenicity and protection against poliovirus. Choice B is incorrect as the intramuscular vaccine is preferred for safety reasons. Choice C is incorrect because the recommendation is based on safety, not cost. Choice D is incorrect as the CDC recommendation is not solely based on immunocompromised status but rather on the overall safety and efficacy of the vaccine.
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