HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions
1. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage group activities to decrease isolation.
- B. Provide a structured environment with routine activities.
- C. Limit the client's physical activity to prevent exhaustion.
- D. Allow the client to choose activities freely.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may exhibit excessive energy, impulsivity, and disorganized behavior. Providing a structured environment with routine activities is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach can help regulate the client's behavior, reduce impulsivity, and prevent engaging in potentially harmful activities. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may exacerbate the client's symptoms due to overstimulation. Limiting physical activity (Choice C) may not address the need for structure and routine during a manic episode. Allowing the client to choose activities freely (Choice D) can lead to impulsive decision-making and may not provide the necessary boundaries required to manage the manic symptoms effectively.
2. A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, 'My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!' The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?
- A. Denial
- B. Projection
- C. Rationalization
- D. Splitting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own feelings of anger and selfishness onto his roommate. Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, and motives to another person. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Denial is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality or experience. Rationalization is providing logical-sounding reasons to justify unacceptable behaviors or feelings. Splitting is seeing individuals as all good or all bad, with no middle ground.
3. The nurse is planning care for a 32-year-old male client diagnosed with HIV infection who has a history of chronic depression. Recently, the client's viral load has begun to increase rather than decrease despite his adherence to the HIV drug regimen. What should the nurse do first while taking the client's history upon admission to the hospital?
- A. Determine if the client attends a support group weekly.
- B. Hold all antidepressant medications until further notice.
- C. Ask the client if he takes St. John's Wort routinely.
- D. Have the client describe any recent changes in mood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's top priority upon admission is to determine if the client has been taking St. John's Wort, an herbal preparation often used for depression. St. John's Wort can interact adversely with medications used to treat HIV infection, potentially explaining the rise in the viral load (C). Asking about attending support groups (A) or recent changes in mood (D) may provide valuable information about the client's depression but is not as critical as determining St. John's Wort use. Holding antidepressant medications (B) without assessing for potential interactions can be harmful to the client.
4. A male employee who is assessed weekly in the employee clinic for blood pressure because of a history of hypertension tells the nurse that he is so upset with one of his co-workers that he would like to shoot him. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Determine if the client has a weapon available for use.
- B. Inform the health care provider of the threat to harm a co-worker.
- C. Notify security of the client's intention to harm a co-worker.
- D. Have the employee escorted to a mental health facility.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Determining if the client has access to a weapon is critical for immediate safety and to prevent potential harm.
5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The client reports feeling restless and unable to sit still. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and relax.
- B. Assess the client for signs of akathisia.
- C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Restlessness and inability to sit still are signs of akathisia, an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications. The nurse should first assess the client for signs of akathisia by observing their movements and behavior. Assessing for akathisia is crucial to differentiate it from other conditions and to intervene appropriately. Instructing the client to relax or engage in physical activity may not address the underlying issue of akathisia. Administering lorazepam should not be the first action as it may mask the symptoms of akathisia temporarily without addressing the root cause.
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