HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?
- A. I have problems with diarrhea.
- B. I have difficulty falling asleep.
- C. I have diminished sexual function.
- D. I often feel jittery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.
2. In an emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client who reports right lower quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Auscultate bowel sounds.
- B. Administer an antiemetic.
- C. Offer pain medication.
- D. Palpate the abdomen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to auscultate bowel sounds. This step is crucial to assess bowel activity before proceeding with palpation or administering medications. Assessing bowel sounds can provide valuable information about bowel motility and potential obstructions. Administering an antiemetic or offering pain medication may be necessary but should come after assessing bowel sounds to ensure appropriate treatment. Palpating the abdomen should be avoided initially to prevent potential discomfort or complications, especially if there is suspected abdominal pathology.
3. A client is 24 hours postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair. The client is tolerating clear liquids well, has active bowel sounds, and is expressing a desire for “real food.†The nurse tells the client, “I will call the surgeon and ask for a change in diet.†The surgeon hears the nurse’s report and prescribes a full liquid diet. The nurse used which of the following levels of critical thinking?
- A. Basic
- B. Commitment
- C. Complex
- D. Integrity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse demonstrated complex critical thinking by assessing the client's condition, evaluating the need for a change, and making a recommendation to the surgeon. In this scenario, the nurse went beyond simply following instructions or making routine decisions (basic critical thinking). There was a depth of analysis and decision-making involved, showing a higher level of critical thinking than basic or commitment levels. Integrity is about adherence to ethical principles and honesty, not directly related to the critical thinking process.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has herpes zoster. The client asks about complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that this condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?
- A. Acupuncture
- B. Massage therapy
- C. Aromatherapy
- D. Herbal supplements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Acupuncture. Acupuncture is contraindicated for clients with herpes zoster due to the risk of infection at the needle sites. In individuals with herpes zoster, the skin's integrity is compromised, increasing susceptibility to infections. Therefore, acupuncture, which involves inserting needles into the skin, can introduce pathogens and lead to local infections. Massage therapy (B), aromatherapy (C), and herbal supplements (D) do not involve skin penetration like acupuncture and are generally considered safe complementary therapies for pain control in clients with herpes zoster.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
- B. Irregular heart rhythm
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99