HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. While being prepared for transport to the operating room, a client scheduled for hysterectomy informs the nurse that she no longer wants to have surgery. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the provider about the client's decision
- B. Proceed with the transport
- C. Prepare the surgical site
- D. Document the client’s statement
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the provider about the client's decision. By informing the provider, they can discuss the client's change in decision, explore the reasons behind it, and determine the appropriate course of action. Proceeding with the transport (Choice B) without addressing the client's concerns would not respect the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Preparing the surgical site (Choice C) would be premature and inappropriate if the client no longer wishes to proceed with the surgery. While documenting the client's statement (Choice D) is important for documentation purposes, the immediate priority is to involve the provider in the decision-making process.
2. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.
3. A home health nurse is planning to provide health promotion activities for a group of clients in the community. Which of the following activities is an example of the nurse promoting primary prevention?
- A. Educating clients about the recommended immunization schedule for adults
- B. Teaching clients how to manage chronic illnesses
- C. Providing counseling for depression
- D. Offering support groups for cancer survivors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Educating clients about the recommended immunization schedule for adults. This activity falls under primary prevention, which aims to prevent the onset of illness or injury. Immunizations are a proactive measure to protect individuals from developing certain diseases. Choices B, C, and D involve managing chronic illnesses, providing counseling for mental health issues, and offering support for individuals who have already experienced cancer, respectively. These activities are more aligned with secondary or tertiary prevention, focusing on managing existing conditions or preventing complications in those already affected.
4. A client is being taught about medications at discharge. Which statement should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?
- A. I can open the time-release capsule with the beads in it and sprinkle them on my oatmeal.
- B. If I am having difficulty swallowing, I will add the liquid medication to a prepared package of pudding.
- C. I can crush the enteric-coated pill if needed.
- D. I will eat two crackers with the pain pills.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Adding liquid medication to pudding can help with swallowing difficulties, demonstrating understanding of the instructions. Options A and C are incorrect as altering time-release capsules and enteric-coated pills is not recommended in medication administration. Option A is incorrect as time-release capsules should not be opened and sprinkled on food, affecting their efficacy. Option C is incorrect as crushing enteric-coated pills can affect their absorption. Option D is unrelated to medication administration and does not demonstrate understanding of the instructions.
5. The healthcare provider is providing oral care to an unconscious patient and notes that the patient has extremely bad breath. Which term will the healthcare provider use when reporting to the oncoming shift?
- A. Cheilitis
- B. Halitosis
- C. Glossitis
- D. Dental caries
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct term the healthcare provider will use when reporting the extremely bad breath of the unconscious patient to the oncoming shift is 'Halitosis' (Choice B). Halitosis specifically refers to bad breath. Cheilitis (Choice A) is inflammation of the lips, not related to bad breath. Glossitis (Choice C) is inflammation of the tongue, not directly associated with bad breath. Dental caries (Choice D) are cavities in the teeth, which can contribute to bad breath but are not the term used to describe bad breath itself.
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