HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Reposition the client
- B. Document the client's IV intake in the medical record
- C. Request a new IV fluid prescription
- D. Check the IV tubing for obstruction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. The first step in the nursing process is assessment. By checking the IV tubing for obstruction, the nurse can assess and potentially correct any issues affecting the flow rate. This action may help to ensure that the prescribed infusion rate is maintained. Repositioning the client is not the priority at this stage as the issue seems related to the IV tubing. Documenting the intake or requesting a new prescription are not immediate actions needed to address the current situation with the IV fluid flow.
2. The nurse observes an UAP positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows
- B. Ensure that the UAP has placed pillows effectively to protect the client
- C. Ask the UAP to use some pillows to prop the client in a side-lying position
- D. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using soft blankets to secure to the side rails provides better protection during a seizure as they are more secure and less likely to shift compared to pillows. This action helps prevent injury to the client by minimizing the risk of falling or hitting the side rails during a seizure. Choices B and C do not address the issue of using more secure materials. Choice D is inappropriate as it is important for the nurse to ensure the safety and well-being of the client by using the most appropriate protective measures.
3. A healthcare professional is planning to assess the abdomen of a client who reports feeling bloated for several weeks. Which of the following methods of assessment should the healthcare professional use first?
- A. Inspection
- B. Palpation
- C. Auscultation
- D. Percussion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Inspection is the initial step in abdominal assessment as it allows the healthcare professional to visually observe any abnormalities or signs of bloating. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion are subsequent assessment techniques that follow inspection. Palpation involves feeling for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement; auscultation is listening for bowel sounds; and percussion is used to assess the density of underlying tissues or detect the presence of fluid or air in the abdomen. In the context of a client reporting bloating, the first step should be visual inspection to gather initial information. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion come after inspection to provide a more comprehensive assessment.
4. The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the LPN that this client understands the dietary restrictions?
- A. Tossed salad with low-sodium dressing, bacon, and tomato sandwich.
- B. New England clam chowder, unsalted crackers, fresh fruit salad.
- C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream.
- D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, and a slice of cherry pie.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. These items are low in sodium, making it a suitable meal for someone on a low-sodium diet. Skim milk, turkey salad, and vanilla ice cream are naturally low in sodium, while the roll can be selected as a low-sodium option. Choices A, B, and D contain items that are typically high in sodium, such as bacon, clam chowder, crackers, and cheese, making them unsuitable for a low-sodium diet.
5. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Increase in blood pressure
- C. Decrease in respiratory rate
- D. Increase in urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.
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