HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Questions
1. Which of the following statements is correct regarding community health nursing?
- A. Evaluation of the health status of individuals and families should be done in consultation with them.
- B. The public health nurse (PHN) who works with communication for 6 can solely determine the needs of the community.
- C. Provision of PHN care is not in any way affected by policies of the agency where the nurse works.
- D. Professional growth and development of the PHN is the responsibility of the Department of Health (DOH).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement is that evaluation of the health status of individuals and families should be done in consultation with them. This approach ensures that the assessment is accurate and takes into account the perspectives and concerns of the individuals and families involved. Choice B is incorrect because determining the needs of the community should involve input from various stakeholders, not solely the PHN. Choice C is incorrect as the provision of PHN care can be influenced by the policies of the agency or organization where the nurse works. Choice D is also incorrect as while the DOH may play a role in setting standards, the professional growth and development of a PHN is typically a personal and professional responsibility.
2. A client with tuberculosis is receiving isoniazid (INH). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid (INH) can lead to hepatotoxicity, necessitating the monitoring of liver function tests. This adverse effect is characterized by liver damage and dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because isoniazid is not typically associated with hyperglycemia, hypotension, or hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing for signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity in a client receiving isoniazid.
3. What is the most common cause of vaginal bleeding immediately after birth?
- A. Uterine atony
- B. Genital lacerations
- C. Abnormal clotting mechanism
- D. Endometritis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding immediately after birth is most often due to uterine atony, which is the failure of the uterus to contract following delivery. This results in inadequate compression of blood vessels at the placental site, leading to hemorrhage. Genital lacerations and abnormal clotting mechanisms can also cause bleeding but are less common immediately after birth compared to uterine atony. Endometritis, inflammation of the lining of the uterus, usually presents with symptoms like fever and pelvic pain rather than immediate postpartum bleeding.
4. The occupational health nurse is completing a yearly self-evaluation. Which activity should the nurse document as an example of proficient performance criteria in professionalism?
- A. Contributes money to a professional society or organization
- B. Maintains chairmanship of the hospital nursing council
- C. Documents the nursing process in care management
- D. Develops policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining chairmanship of the hospital nursing council demonstrates leadership and professionalism. This role involves overseeing and leading nursing activities at the hospital, showcasing a high level of responsibility and professionalism. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to demonstrating professionalism. Contributing money to a professional society, documenting the nursing process, or developing policy initiatives, while valuable activities, do not directly reflect the same level of leadership and professionalism as maintaining chairmanship.
5. Tertiary prevention would best be described as:
- A. recovery from physical limitation and psychological regression
- B. health teaching and immunization
- C. rehabilitation of alcoholic and drug dependents
- D. preventing disability and maximum use of remaining capacity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tertiary prevention is the stage of prevention that aims at preventing disability and maximizing the use of remaining capacity. Choice A is more aligned with rehabilitation rather than tertiary prevention. Choice B refers to primary prevention by promoting health and preventing diseases. Choice C focuses on rehabilitation specific to alcohol and drug dependence, which is a form of secondary prevention, not tertiary prevention.
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