Free HESI LPN Pediatrics practice for Pediatric HESI Test Bank (HESI LPN). Answer 112 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tra
What are the most common signs and symptoms of leukemia related to bone marrow involvement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Petechiae, infection, and fatigue are common signs and symptoms of leukemia related to bone marrow involvement. Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin due to low platelet counts. Infection susceptibility increases due to decreased white blood cells from compromised bone marrow function. Fatigue is a common symptom of anemia resulting from decreased red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical signs and symptoms of leukemia associated with bone marrow dysfunction.
A 6-year-old child with asthma is admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention for a child experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation. Bronchodilators help to dilate the airways, making breathing easier and relieving acute symptoms of asthma. Antihistamines are not the first-line treatment for asthma exacerbations; they are more commonly used for allergic reactions. Corticosteroids are beneficial in reducing inflammation in asthma but are usually administered after bronchodilators to provide long-term control. Oxygen therapy may be necessary in severe cases of asthma exacerbation, but bronchodilators take precedence in improving airway patency and respiratory distress.
A child with a diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being discharged. What dietary instructions should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct dietary instruction for a child with GERD is to avoid gluten. Gluten is a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye, and it can exacerbate GERD symptoms in some individuals. Avoiding gluten can help reduce inflammation and irritation in the gastrointestinal tract, thereby alleviating symptoms of GERD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while spicy foods, high-fat foods, and dairy products can trigger GERD symptoms in some individuals, avoiding gluten specifically is more relevant for managing GERD.
When teaching a class about trisomy 21, the instructor would identify the cause of this disorder as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: nondisjunction. Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by nondisjunction, which is an error in cell division leading to an extra copy of chromosome 21. This additional genetic material alters the course of development and causes the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. X-linked recessive inheritance refers to genetic disorders carried on the X chromosome, genomic imprinting involves gene expression based on parental origin, and autosomal dominant inheritance relates to disorders caused by a dominant gene on one of the non-sex chromosomes. In the case of trisomy 21, the cause is specifically related to the error in chromosome division, making nondisjunction the most appropriate answer.
A child has been diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome, and a nurse is providing care. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention when caring for a child with nephrotic syndrome is monitoring urine output. This is essential for assessing kidney function and managing the condition effectively. Administering diuretics (Choice A) may be a part of the treatment plan but should not be the priority over monitoring urine output. Administering corticosteroids (Choice C) may also be a treatment for nephrotic syndrome, but monitoring urine output takes precedence. Restricting fluid intake (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority intervention compared to monitoring urine output for early detection of changes in kidney function.
A healthcare professional is preparing a presentation for a parent group about musculoskeletal injuries. When describing a child's risk for this type of injury, the professional integrates knowledge that bone growth occurs primarily in which area?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bone growth primarily occurs in the epiphysis, which is the area where growth plates are located. The epiphysis is responsible for longitudinal bone growth. The growth plate, also known as the physis, is the cartilaginous region in the metaphysis where bone growth occurs. The metaphysis is the area between the epiphysis and diaphysis where bone lengthening occurs, but it is not the primary site of bone growth. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
A 3-month-old infant has been hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). What is the priority intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority intervention for a 3-month-old infant hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is clustering care to conserve energy. Infants with RSV often struggle to breathe and require rest periods to recover. Clustering care involves organizing nursing activities to allow for rest intervals, reducing the infant's energy expenditure and aiding recovery. Administering antiviral agents is not the primary intervention for RSV since it is a viral infection, and antiviral medications may not be effective against RSV. While offering oral fluids is crucial for hydration, it may not be the priority when the infant is having respiratory difficulties. Providing an antitussive agent when necessary can help with coughing but is not the priority intervention for managing RSV in this scenario.
What explanation should be given to a parent about the purpose of a tetanus toxoid injection for their child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Long-lasting active immunity is conferred.' Tetanus toxoid injection provides long-lasting active immunity by stimulating the body to produce its own antibodies. Choice A is incorrect because tetanus toxoid injection does not provide passive immunity. Choice C is incorrect because the immunity conferred by the vaccine is not natural but artificially induced. Choice D is incorrect as the immunity provided by the tetanus toxoid injection is active, not passive.
Which nursing intervention provides the most support to the parents of an infant with an obvious physical anomaly?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging parents to express their concerns is the most supportive intervention because it allows them to process their emotions and provides them with an opportunity to share their fears, anxieties, and questions. This open communication helps the nurse to offer appropriate support, education, and reassurance. Discouraging parents from talking about their baby (Choice B) can hinder their emotional expression and prevent them from seeking necessary information and support. Assuring parents not to worry (Choice C) may invalidate their feelings and minimize the significance of their concerns. Showing postoperative photographs (Choice D) may not be appropriate at this stage as parents need emotional support and education about the current situation before focusing on postoperative outcomes.
The nurse is caring for a 1-month-old girl with low-set ears and severe hypotonia who was diagnosed with trisomy 18. Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse identify as most likely?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct nursing diagnosis would be 'Grieving related to the child's poor prognosis.' Trisomy 18 is associated with a poor prognosis, and families often experience feelings of grief and loss when dealing with such a diagnosis. The choice 'Interrupted family process' does not directly address the emotional response to the prognosis. 'Deficient knowledge' may be a concern but does not address the emotional aspect of dealing with a poor prognosis. 'Ineffective coping related to stress from providing care' focuses more on the caregiver's ability to cope rather than the family's response to the child's condition.
At 7 AM, a healthcare professional receives the information that an adolescent with diabetes has a 6:30 AM fasting blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct priority nursing action in this situation is to administer the prescribed dose of rapid-acting insulin. Rapid-acting insulin is necessary to help lower the elevated blood glucose level quickly, thereby preventing potential complications of hyperglycemia. Encouraging exercise, obtaining a glucometer reading, or suggesting consumption of complex carbohydrates like cheese may not address the immediate need to bring down the high blood glucose level effectively. Exercise could potentially raise blood glucose levels, obtaining a glucometer reading may delay necessary treatment, and consuming complex carbohydrates can further elevate blood glucose levels in this scenario.
When describing urticaria, what would an instructor include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Urticaria is a type I hypersensitivity reaction where histamine release leads to vasodilation and the formation of characteristic wheals. Choice A is incorrect as urticaria is associated with type I hypersensitivity, not type IV. Choice C is incorrect because in urticaria, erythema typically appears before the development of wheals. Choice D is incorrect as urticaria is typically pruritic and does not blanch with pressure.
When a family decides to withhold 'extraordinary care' for a newborn with severe abnormalities, what does this decision indicate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a family decides to withhold 'extraordinary care' for a newborn with severe abnormalities, it means that aggressive interventions will not be pursued, allowing the newborn to die naturally. This decision is legal and ethical, respecting the principle of non-maleficence by avoiding unnecessary suffering. Choice A is incorrect because all individuals, including newborns, have rights, but the decision to withhold extraordinary care is based on ethical considerations. Choice B is incorrect as withholding care is not the same as euthanasia, which involves actively ending life. Choice C is incorrect as long as the decision is made within legal and ethical boundaries, it is not considered illegal professional practice.
When teaching a group of parents in the daycare center about accident prevention, the nurse explains that young toddlers are prone to injuries from falls. When receiving feedback, the nurse identifies that more teaching is needed when one parent states, 'I will:'
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Moving a child to a regular bed by the appropriate age is not recommended as it can increase the risk of falls. Toddlers should transition to a regular bed only when developmentally ready to prevent accidents. Keeping medications in a medicine cabinet (Choice A) promotes safety by preventing accidental ingestion. Securing gates at entrances to staircases (Choice B) helps prevent falls down stairs. Buying shoes that close with Velcro rather than laces (Choice D) is a good practice to prevent tripping and falling.
The school nurse is caring for a boy with hemophilia who fell on his arm during recess. What supportive measures should the nurse use until factor replacement therapy can be instituted?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the affected area above the level of the heart is the correct supportive measure for a child with hemophilia who has experienced trauma. This action helps reduce bleeding and swelling by promoting venous return and preventing further pooling of blood in the affected area. Applying warm, moist compresses (Choice A) may not be recommended as it can potentially increase bleeding by dilating blood vessels. Applying pressure for at least 1 minute (Choice B) can be helpful for minor cuts or wounds but may not be as effective in managing bleeding in a child with hemophilia. Beginning passive range-of-motion (Choice D) should be avoided as it can exacerbate bleeding and cause further damage in a child with hemophilia.
A child has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a severe asthma attack. What type of acid-base imbalance should the nurse expect the child to develop?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a severe asthma attack, the child is likely to develop respiratory acidosis. This occurs due to impaired respirations, leading to the retention of carbon dioxide and the formation of carbonic acid. Choice A is incorrect as metabolic alkalosis is not expected in this situation. Choice B is incorrect as respiratory alkalosis does not align with the scenario of impaired respirations in severe asthma attacks. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes metabolic acidosis, which is not typically associated with severe asthma attacks.
A nurse is teaching the parents of a toddler about the signs and symptoms of lead poisoning. Which symptom should the nurse emphasize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Irritability is a significant symptom of lead poisoning in toddlers and should be emphasized to parents. Lead poisoning can manifest with various symptoms, but irritability is particularly common in children exposed to lead. Abdominal pain (Choice A) is not a typical symptom of lead poisoning in toddlers. While constipation (Choice B) can occur, it is less specific and less common than irritability. Frequent urination (Choice D) is not a typical symptom associated with lead poisoning in toddlers and is less relevant for parents to recognize in this context.
The nurse is implementing care for a school-age child admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Initiating intravenous saline solution is the initial priority in managing diabetic ketoacidosis to address dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering insulin without addressing dehydration first can lead to potential complications. While monitoring cardiac status and oxygen saturation are important, addressing the fluid and electrolyte imbalances takes precedence in the management of DKA.
A healthcare professional plans to discuss childhood nutrition with a group of parents whose children have Down syndrome in an attempt to minimize a common nutritional problem. What problem should be addressed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Childhood obesity is a prevalent issue in children with Down syndrome due to factors such as decreased physical activity, slower metabolism, and potential overeating tendencies. Addressing obesity is crucial to promoting healthy lifestyles and preventing associated health complications. Rickets, a condition caused by a deficiency of vitamin D, is not commonly associated with Down syndrome. While anemia can occur in individuals with Down syndrome, obesity is a more common concern. Rumination, the regurgitation of food without nausea, is not a typical nutritional problem in children with Down syndrome.
During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
An infant is diagnosed with Hirschsprung disease. What nursing intervention is essential before surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Maintaining NPO (nothing by mouth) status is essential before surgery for a patient with Hirschsprung disease to prevent aspiration. Administering antibiotics, ensuring bowel rest, and performing regular enemas are not the priority interventions before surgery for this condition. Administering antibiotics may be necessary in the postoperative period to prevent infection, ensuring bowel rest can be beneficial but is not the priority, and performing regular enemas is not typically recommended before surgery for Hirschsprung disease.
What should be used to feed an infant born with a unilateral cleft lip and palate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A cross-cut nipple is the most appropriate choice for feeding an infant with a unilateral cleft lip and palate. Using a cross-cut nipple helps regulate the flow of milk, making feeding easier for the infant and reducing the risk of aspiration. Plastic spoons, parenteral infusion, and rubber-tipped syringes are not recommended for feeding infants with cleft lip and palate as they can pose risks such as choking, aspiration, or inadequate milk intake. It is essential to choose a feeding method that minimizes these risks and ensures proper nutrition for the infant.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a child with tetralogy of Fallot that indicates an elevated RBC count. What does the nurse identify as the cause of the polycythemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Tissue oxygen needs. Polycythemia occurs in response to chronic hypoxia, leading the body to increase red blood cell production to enhance oxygen delivery. In tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect that results in reduced oxygen levels in the blood, the body compensates by producing more red blood cells. Choice A is incorrect as low tissue oxygen needs would not trigger polycythemia. Choice C, diminished iron levels, is not the cause of polycythemia in this case. Choice D, hypertrophic cardiac muscle, is unrelated to the pathophysiology of polycythemia in tetralogy of Fallot.
A 15-month-old child with the diagnosis of hydrocephalus is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan. What should the nurse include when preparing the toddler for the CT scan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Preparing a toddler for a CT scan involves providing a simple explanation of the procedure to reduce anxiety and help the child understand what will happen. This approach helps establish trust and cooperation, making the experience less frightening for the child. Shaving the head, starting an IV infusion, or administering a sedative are not typically part of the preparation for a CT scan in a toddler and may not be necessary or appropriate in this scenario.
A child is being assessed for suspected intussusception. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare provider likely to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct clinical manifestation the healthcare provider is likely to observe in a child with suspected intussusception is abdominal distension. Intussusception involves one portion of the intestine telescoping into another, causing obstruction. Abdominal distension is a common symptom due to the obstruction and buildup of gas and fluid in the affected area. While projectile vomiting can occur, it is not as specific to intussusception as abdominal distension. Currant jelly stools, which are stools containing blood and mucus, are a classic sign of intussusception but are not a clinical manifestation observable on assessment. Constipation is not typically associated with intussusception, as this condition often presents with symptoms of bowel obstruction rather than constipation.
What is important to include in discharge instructions for a child who has had a tonsillectomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging fluid intake is essential post-tonsillectomy to keep the throat moist, aid in healing, and prevent dehydration. Gargling with salt water may irritate the surgical site and is typically avoided to prevent discomfort and irritation. Providing hard candy can be harmful as it may cause trauma to the surgical area and should be avoided to prevent injury. Applying heat to the neck is not recommended as it can increase swelling and discomfort in the surgical region. Therefore, the correct instruction is to encourage fluid intake.
The instructor is educating a group of students about myelination in a child. Which statement by the students indicates that the teaching was successful?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Myelination occurs in a cephalocaudal (head-to-toe) pattern, improving nerve function progressively. Choice A is incorrect because myelination continues beyond 4 years of age and into adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as myelination speeds up nerve impulses rather than slowing them down. Choice D is incorrect because myelination increases the specificity and efficiency of nerve impulses, making them more focused and precise.
An infant who had cardiac surgery for a congenital defect is to be discharged. What should the nurse emphasize to the parents regarding administering the prescribed antibiotic?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Ensure that the antibiotic is administered as prescribed.' It's crucial to stress the importance of following the prescribed antibiotic regimen to prevent infections and promote proper healing after cardiac surgery. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the fundamental aspect of adherence to the prescription. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the bottle may not be necessary for all antibiotics and is not a critical instruction in this context. Choice D is incorrect as storage instructions are not directly related to the administration of the antibiotic as prescribed, which is the primary concern in this scenario.
The nurse is preparing a presentation to a local community group about genetic disorders and the types of congenital anomalies that can occur. What would the nurse include as a major congenital anomaly?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cleft palate is considered a major congenital anomaly because it involves a gap or split in the roof of the mouth, which can significantly impact feeding, speech development, dental health, and overall well-being. Overlapping digits (Choice A) and polydactyly (Choice B) are examples of limb abnormalities rather than major congenital anomalies affecting vital functions. Umbilical hernia (Choice C) is a common condition where abdominal organs protrude through the belly button and is typically not considered a major congenital anomaly in the same way as cleft palate.
What should be included in the teaching plan for parents of an infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Mental retardation occurs if PKU is untreated.' Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder that, if left untreated with dietary management, can lead to severe mental retardation due to the accumulation of phenylalanine. It is crucial for parents to understand the potential consequences of untreated PKU to emphasize the importance of early and consistent treatment. Choice B is incorrect because testing for PKU is typically done through newborn screening shortly after birth, not immediately. Choice C is incorrect as treatment for PKU primarily involves strict dietary management that restricts phenylalanine intake, not lifelong medications. Choice D is incorrect as PKU is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning that both parents must pass on a mutated gene for the disorder to manifest.
After a cardiac catheterization, what is the priority nursing care for a 3-year-old child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing care after a cardiac catheterization in a 3-year-old is to monitor the site for bleeding. This is essential to promptly detect and manage any potential complications, such as hematoma or hemorrhage. Encouraging early ambulation, as mentioned in choice A, may not be safe immediately post-procedure and should be guided by the healthcare provider's instructions. Restricting fluids until blood pressure is stabilized, as in choice C, is not typically necessary after a cardiac catheterization. Comparing blood pressure in both lower extremities, as in choice D, is not the priority immediate nursing care following this procedure.
A parent asks the nurse what to do for their child who has an earache and fever. What should the nurse suggest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Applying a warm compress to the affected ear is a recommended home remedy for earaches as it can help reduce pain and discomfort. The warmth can also help improve circulation and promote drainage if there is fluid buildup. Giving a cold drink (Choice B) is not typically beneficial for earaches and fever. Administering acetaminophen (Choice C) can help reduce fever and alleviate pain, but addressing the earache directly with a warm compress is a more targeted approach. Taking the child to the emergency department (Choice D) is not necessary for a common earache unless there are severe symptoms or complications present.
When preparing a 2-year-old child for surgery, what preoperative teaching should be provided to help them understand the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct preoperative teaching for a 2-year-old child undergoing surgery involves using a doll to demonstrate the procedure. This method helps the child understand what to expect in a non-threatening and visual way, making the experience less intimidating. Explaining the procedure in simple terms (Choice A) may not effectively convey the details to a young child. Showing pictures of the hospital environment (Choice C) may not directly address the surgical procedure itself. Allowing the child to play with medical equipment (Choice D) can be unsafe and may not effectively prepare the child for the surgery.
A healthcare provider is assessing a child with suspected pneumonia. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare provider likely to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a child with suspected pneumonia, a healthcare provider is likely to observe a cough as a common clinical manifestation. Pneumonia often presents with symptoms such as cough, fever, difficulty breathing, and chest pain. Choice B, diarrhea, is not typically associated with pneumonia. Choice C, rash, is not a common clinical manifestation of pneumonia. Choice D, vomiting, is also not a typical symptom of pneumonia. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Cough.
The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old boy whose parents brought him to the clinic when they noticed that the right side of his abdomen was swollen. What finding would suggest this child has a neuroblastoma?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vomiting and poor appetite are common symptoms of neuroblastoma, a malignancy that arises from neural crest cells in the adrenal glands or sympathetic nervous system. This tumor can cause abdominal swelling due to its location and size, leading to symptoms like vomiting and decreased appetite. The presence of a maculopapular rash on the palms (Choice A) is not a typical finding associated with neuroblastoma. Irritability and failure to thrive (Choice C) are nonspecific symptoms that can be seen in various conditions but are not specifically indicative of neuroblastoma. Auscultation revealing wheezing with diminished lung sounds (Choice D) may suggest respiratory conditions rather than neuroblastoma.
Which of the following findings would indicate altered mental status in a small child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In small children, altered mental status can manifest as a lack of attention to the presence of unfamiliar individuals, such as the EMT-B. This lack of engagement may indicate confusion, disorientation, or impaired cognitive function. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as recognizing parents, exhibiting fear, or maintaining consistent eye contact do not necessarily indicate altered mental status. Recognizing parents is a normal response, fear can be a typical reaction to unfamiliar situations, and making eye contact may be a sign of curiosity or comfort rather than a reflection of mental status.
The healthcare professional is preparing a presentation to a local community group about genetic disorders and the types of congenital anomalies that can occur. What would the professional include as a major congenital anomaly?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cleft palate is considered a major congenital anomaly due to its significant impact on feeding, speech, and overall health. Overlapping digits (Option A) are a physical anomaly but not typically considered a major congenital anomaly. Polydactyly (Option B) refers to having extra fingers or toes, which is a congenital anomaly but not as major as a cleft palate. Umbilical hernia (Option C) involves a protrusion of abdominal contents through the umbilical ring but is not typically classified as a major congenital anomaly compared to cleft palate.
A parent asks the nurse what they can do to help their child who is experiencing night terrors. What should the nurse suggest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Establishing a bedtime routine is the most appropriate suggestion for a child experiencing night terrors. Consistent bedtime routines help create a sense of security and predictability, reducing the likelihood of night terrors. Encouraging the child to talk about the dream (Choice A) may not be effective as night terrors occur during non-REM sleep, and the child may not remember the dreams. Allowing the child to sleep with the parents (Choice C) can reinforce dependency and may not address the underlying causes of night terrors. Waking the child during the night (Choice D) can disrupt their sleep cycle and worsen the occurrence of night terrors.
A child with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome is being discharged. What dietary instructions should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a child with nephrotic syndrome, it is important to avoid foods high in salt. This instruction helps manage symptoms and prevent complications associated with the condition. High salt intake can lead to fluid retention and worsen edema, which are common issues in nephrotic syndrome. Encouraging a low-sodium diet is crucial to maintaining fluid balance and reducing strain on the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a high-protein diet can further stress the kidneys, while a low-protein diet may not be necessary unless specifically advised by the healthcare provider. Encouraging a low-sodium diet is more appropriate for managing nephrotic syndrome.
A child with a diagnosis of sickle cell anemia is admitted to the hospital with a vaso-occlusive crisis. What is the most important nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, the priority nursing intervention is administering pain medication. Pain management is crucial to alleviate the intense pain experienced by the child. While administering oxygen can help improve oxygenation, it is not the most critical intervention during a vaso-occlusive crisis. Monitoring fluid intake is important for overall care but is not the immediate priority during a crisis. Encouraging physical activity is contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis as it can worsen the pain and the crisis itself.
The parents of a child who is scheduled for open-heart surgery ask why their child must be subjected to chest tubes after surgery. What should the nurse consider before responding in language the parents will understand?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chest tubes are necessary after open-heart surgery to facilitate the drainage of air and fluid from the chest cavity. These tubes help prevent complications such as pneumothorax (accumulation of air in the pleural space) or cardiac tamponade (build-up of fluid in the pericardial sac), which can be serious postoperative issues. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because chest tubes are primarily used for draining purposes and not for increasing tidal volumes, maintaining positive intrapleural pressure, or regulating pressure on the pericardium and chest wall.
A nurse is caring for an infant born with exstrophy of the bladder. What does the nurse determine is the greatest risk for this infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Infection is the greatest risk for an infant with exstrophy of the bladder due to the exposure of the bladder and surrounding tissues. The bladder mucosa and adjacent tissues being exposed increase the susceptibility to infections. Dehydration (Choice B) is not the primary concern in this condition. Urinary retention (Choice C) is less likely as exstrophy of the bladder usually presents with constant dribbling of urine. Intestinal obstruction (Choice D) is not directly related to exstrophy of the bladder.
A child is being assessed by a nurse for suspected nephrotic syndrome. What clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Edema is a hallmark clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased permeability of the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to protein loss in the urine (proteinuria). The decrease in serum protein levels results in a reduced oncotic pressure, leading to fluid shifting from the intravascular space into the interstitial spaces, causing edema. Jaundice (choice A) is not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome. Hypertension (choice C) is more commonly seen in conditions like nephritic syndrome. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and is not a prominent feature of nephrotic syndrome.
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Positive fibrin split products are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In DIC, there is widespread clotting and subsequent consumption of clotting factors, leading to the formation of fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster clotting, which is opposite to the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) may be observed in the early stages of DIC due to the compensatory increase in production, but it is not a definitive indicator. Increased platelets (Choice D) may be seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot formation, but it is not a specific finding for DIC.
Why might a healthcare provider question a health care provider's order for a tap water enema for a 6-month-old infant with suspected Hirschsprung disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Tap water enemas can cause significant fluid and electrolyte imbalances, particularly in infants, making them unsafe for this age group. Choice A is incorrect because tap water enemas are unlikely to lead to loss of necessary nutrients. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the physiological risk of tap water enemas. Choice D is incorrect as shock from a sudden drop in temperature is not a common concern with tap water enemas.
The nurse is teaching the parents of a 1-month-old girl with Down syndrome how to maintain good health for the child. Which instruction would the nurse be least likely to include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. While special dietary needs may be important for a child with Down syndrome, they are typically not the primary concern for a 1-month-old. The nurse would be least likely to focus on this aspect as immediate issues such as monitoring for congenital heart defects (echocardiogram), cervical spine abnormalities (radiographs), and respiratory infections are more critical in the early months. Adhering to dietary needs is important, but it is usually addressed as the child grows older and is not the priority during the infant stage.
What is an essential nursing action when caring for a young child with severe diarrhea?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Promoting perianal skin integrity is crucial when caring for a young child with severe diarrhea as it helps prevent skin breakdown from the irritation caused by frequent stooling. Maintaining the IV (Choice A) may be necessary but is not directly related to managing perianal skin integrity. Taking daily weights (Choice B) is important for monitoring fluid status but not the priority when addressing perianal skin integrity. While replacing lost calories (Choice C) is essential, promoting perianal skin integrity takes precedence in preventing complications associated with skin breakdown.
When teaching a group of parents in the daycare center about accident prevention, the nurse explains that young toddlers are prone to injuries from falls. When receiving feedback, the nurse identifies that more teaching is needed when one parent states, 'I will:'
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Moving a child to a regular bed by the age of three can increase the risk of falls as young toddlers may not have the motor skills to safely navigate a larger bed. This indicates a need for more teaching on safety measures. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate safety measures that can help prevent accidents and injuries in young children. Keeping medications in a medicine cabinet, having secured gates at entrances to staircases, and choosing shoes that fasten with Velcro instead of laces are all good practices to ensure a safe environment for toddlers.
The nurse is assessing a child with a possible fracture. What would the nurse identify as the most reliable indicator?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Point tenderness is the most reliable indicator of a possible fracture in a child. It is a localized tenderness experienced when pressure is applied to a specific area, suggesting a potential fracture. This tenderness is considered more specific to a fracture than other symptoms such as lack of spontaneous movement, bruising, or inability to bear weight. Lack of spontaneous movement and inability to bear weight can be present in various musculoskeletal injuries, while bruising may not always be immediate or specific to a fracture.
According to Friedman's structural functional theory, what defines the family component of meeting the love and belonging needs of each member?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Friedman's structural functional theory outlines different functions of a family. The affective function, as defined by Friedman, pertains to meeting the love and belonging needs of each member. This includes emotional support, nurturing, and creating a sense of security within the family unit. Choices B, C, and D do not specifically address the affective function described in Friedman's theory. Choice B focuses on socialization and preparing children for adult roles, choice C relates to the economic function of a family, and choice D pertains to the instrumental function of providing physical care for health.
Based on developmental norms for a 5-year-old child, a healthcare professional decides to withhold a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) elixir and notify the healthcare provider. Below what apical pulse did the healthcare professional withhold the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a 5-year-old child, an apical pulse below 90 beats/min is an indicator to withhold digoxin. Digoxin is a medication that affects the heart, and in pediatric patients, monitoring the pulse rate is crucial due to the risk of bradycardia (slow heart rate) as a potential side effect. In this case, an apical pulse of 90 beats/min or lower indicates a heart rate that may be too slow for a child of this age, warranting the withholding of digoxin and prompt notification of the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are not within the critical range specified for withholding digoxin in a 5-year-old child and would not necessitate withholding the medication.
What foods are appropriate for a 30-month-old toddler on a regular diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Macaroni and cheese and Cheerios are appropriate choices for a 30-month-old toddler on a regular diet. These foods are easy to chew, digest, and are generally well-liked by toddlers. Option A, a hamburger with bun and grapes, may be difficult for a toddler to handle due to the size of the hamburger and grapes pose a choking hazard. Option B, chicken fingers and french fries, may be too greasy and processed for a toddler's developing digestive system. Option C, hot dog with bun and potato chips, is also not ideal as hot dogs can be a choking hazard and potato chips are high in salt and may not provide adequate nutrition.
.A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being discharged from the hospital. What is important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Recognizing signs of hypoglycemia is crucial for managing type 1 diabetes mellitus and preventing complications.
What should the nurse include in the preoperative teaching for a 4-year-old child scheduled for a tonsillectomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging deep breathing exercises is crucial preoperative teaching for a child scheduled for a tonsillectomy as it helps improve lung function and can prevent postoperative complications like pneumonia. Explaining the procedure in detail may heighten the child's anxiety, making it less ideal. While discussing hydration is important, it may not be the top priority for preoperative teaching for this specific procedure. Play therapy can reduce fear and anxiety, but encouraging deep breathing exercises directly contributes to better postoperative outcomes by enhancing respiratory function.
A group of nursing students is reviewing the components of the endocrine system. The students demonstrate understanding of the review when they identify what as the primary function of this system?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Hormonal secretion' (Choice B). The primary function of the endocrine system is to secrete hormones that regulate various bodily functions such as metabolism, growth, and reproduction. Choice A, 'Regulation of water balance,' is primarily controlled by the kidneys and the urinary system, not the endocrine system. Choice C, 'Cellular metabolism,' is more directly related to the functions of individual cells rather than the overall function of the endocrine system. Choice D, 'Growth stimulation,' is a function that can be influenced by hormones secreted by the endocrine system, but it is not the primary function of the system.
In a case where a limb is protruding from a mother's vagina during active labor, how should this condition be managed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a limb is protruding from the vagina during active labor, the appropriate management includes positioning the mother in a head-down position with her hips elevated. This position helps relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, reducing the risk of compromising fetal blood flow and oxygenation. Administering oxygen is essential to maintain oxygenation levels for both the mother and the fetus. Providing transport to a healthcare facility equipped to manage this obstetric emergency is crucial for ensuring a safe delivery. Choice A is incorrect because a semi-Fowler's position does not effectively relieve pressure on the umbilical cord. Choice C is incorrect as applying traction to the protruding limb can lead to injury or complications for both the mother and the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because attempting to manipulate the limb without proper positioning and preparation can worsen the situation and increase risks during delivery.
A 5-year-old child with a diagnosis of asthma is being evaluated for medication management. What is an important assessment for the nurse to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the child's dietary intake is crucial in managing asthma as certain foods can trigger symptoms or exacerbate the condition. Monitoring the child's diet can help identify triggers, ensure proper nutrition, and support the child's overall health. Assessing sleep patterns (Choice A) may be relevant but is not as directly linked to asthma management as dietary intake. Academic performance (Choice C) and behavior at home (Choice D) are important aspects of a child's well-being but are not directly related to asthma management.
During a health assessment of a school-age child, where should the nurse focus more attention based on the child's developmental level?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the school-age period, children are active, curious, and engaged in various physical activities, making them more susceptible to accidents and injuries. This developmental stage is characterized by increased motor skills and exploration, leading to a higher risk of unintentional harm. While infections, poisonings, and risk-taking behaviors are also concerns for school-age children, focusing on preventing and addressing accidents and injuries is essential due to their heightened physical activity and curiosity.
A 6-year-old child comes to the school nurse reporting a sore throat, and the nurse verifies that the child has a fever and a red, inflamed throat. When a parent of the child arrives at school to take the child home, the nurse urges the parent to seek treatment. The nurse is aware that the causative agent may be beta-hemolytic streptococcus, and the illness may progress to inflamed joints and an infection in the heart. What illness is of most concern to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Rheumatic fever is the most concerning illness in this case. It can develop as a complication of untreated strep throat caused by beta-hemolytic streptococcus. If not properly treated, rheumatic fever can lead to serious complications such as inflamed joints and heart infections. Tetanus is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium tetani bacteria and is not related to the symptoms described in the scenario. Influenza is a viral respiratory illness and does not typically lead to rheumatic fever. While scarlet fever is also caused by streptococcus bacteria, in this case, the symptoms described are more indicative of rheumatic fever than scarlet fever.
A child with a diagnosis of leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. What is the most important nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor for signs of infection. When a child is undergoing chemotherapy, their immune system is compromised, making them more susceptible to infections. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial to promptly identify and treat any potential infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although monitoring for bleeding, dehydration, and pain are important aspects of care, the priority for a child receiving chemotherapy is to prevent and detect infections due to their increased vulnerability.
In an adolescent suspected of having type 1 diabetes mellitus, which clinical manifestation may be present?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Poor wound healing is a common clinical manifestation of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Elevated blood glucose levels in diabetes can lead to impaired wound healing by affecting various cellular processes involved in the healing cascade. Moist skin (Choice A) is not typically associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Weight gain (Choice B) is more commonly seen in type 2 diabetes due to insulin resistance. Fluid overload (Choice C) is not a typical clinical manifestation of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Therefore, the correct answer is poor wound healing.
When teaching an adolescent with type 1 diabetes about dietary management, what should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: A ready source of glucose should be available. When managing type 1 diabetes, it is crucial to have a quick source of glucose readily available in case of hypoglycemia. This ensures that the adolescent can quickly raise their blood sugar levels to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the immediate need for glucose in managing hypoglycemia. While it is important for meals to be consumed regularly and in a controlled manner, specifying that they should be eaten at home or foods weighed using a gram scale is not as critical as ensuring a quick source of glucose in emergency situations.
The healthcare provider closely monitors the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The purpose of this assessment is to detect an early sign of which possible complication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is crucial for detecting early signs of infection, a common complication in this condition. In nephrotic syndrome, the child's immune system is compromised, making them more susceptible to infections. Monitoring for fever or any changes in temperature can help healthcare providers intervene promptly to prevent further complications. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. Encephalopathy (choice C) refers to brain dysfunction and is not a common complication of nephrotic syndrome. Edema (choice D) is a primary manifestation of nephrotic syndrome but is not typically monitored through temperature assessment.
A 6-year-old child with a diagnosis of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is being discharged. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging regular physical activity is essential in managing symptoms and improving joint function in juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Physical activity helps maintain joint mobility, muscle strength, and overall function. Providing a high-calorie diet may not be necessary unless there are specific concerns about the child's nutritional status. A low-sodium diet is not typically a priority in the management of JIA unless the child has comorbid conditions requiring sodium restriction. Administering intravenous fluids is not a standard discharge teaching for JIA unless there are specific medical indications necessitating it.
Which observation made of the exposed abdomen is most indicative of pyloric stenosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: palpable olive-like mass. In pyloric stenosis, a palpable olive-like mass can often be felt in the abdomen due to the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. This mass is a key characteristic finding in infants with pyloric stenosis. Choice A, abdominal rigidity, is more commonly associated with conditions like peritonitis. Choice B, substernal retraction, is not typically seen in pyloric stenosis but can be a sign of respiratory distress. Choice D, marked distention of the lower abdomen, is not specific to pyloric stenosis and can be present in various abdominal conditions.
A 2-year-old child with a diagnosis of hemophilia is admitted to the hospital. What should the nurse include in the care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to use a soft toothbrush for oral care. Children with hemophilia have a decreased ability to form blood clots, leading to prolonged bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush helps prevent trauma to the gums and oral mucosa, reducing the risk of bleeding. Encouraging participation in contact sports (Choice A) is contraindicated in hemophiliac patients due to the high risk of injury and bleeding. Administering nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (Choice C) and aspirin (Choice D) should be avoided in hemophilia as they can further increase the risk of bleeding due to their antiplatelet effects.
A child with a diagnosis of sickle cell anemia is admitted to the hospital with a vaso-occlusive crisis. What is the most important nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, the priority nursing intervention is administering pain medication to alleviate the severe pain associated with the crisis. While administering oxygen can help improve oxygenation, pain relief is crucial in managing the crisis. Monitoring fluid intake is important in sickle cell anemia but is not the most immediate intervention during a vaso-occlusive crisis. Encouraging physical activity is contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis as it can exacerbate pain and complications.
A group of students is reviewing information about the various types of insulin used to treat type 1 diabetes. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of these insulins as having the longest duration.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Glargine (Lantus) as it has the longest duration of action among the insulins listed, lasting 12 to 24 hours. Lispro (Humalog) and Regular (short-acting) insulins have shorter durations of action, typically lasting 3 to 6 hours. NPH (Neutral Protamine Hagedorn) insulin has an intermediate duration of action, lasting around 12 to 18 hours. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect in the context of insulin duration.
You are called to a residence for a 'sick' 5-year-old child. When you arrive and begin your assessment, you note that the child is unconscious with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. Management of this child should consist of
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a 5-year-old child who is unconscious with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min, the priority is to initiate chest compressions, artificial ventilations, and rapid transport. These vital interventions are crucial in cases of severe respiratory and cardiovascular compromise. Choice A is incorrect because administering 100% oxygen alone may not address the underlying issues of inadequate ventilation and circulatory support. Choice B is not the most appropriate initial intervention in this scenario; chest compressions should precede positive pressure ventilations. Choice D is incorrect as back blows and chest thrusts are indicated in choking emergencies, not in this case of respiratory and cardiovascular compromise.
A 2-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease. What is the primary goal of therapy during the acute phase?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary goal of therapy during the acute phase of Kawasaki disease is to prevent coronary artery aneurysms, which are a serious complication of this condition. Coronary artery aneurysms can lead to long-term cardiovascular issues, making prevention crucial. While reducing fever and improving cardiac function are important aspects of managing Kawasaki disease, the primary focus in the acute phase is on preventing coronary artery aneurysms. Dehydration prevention is also essential but not the primary goal during the acute phase of this disease.
A healthcare professional is teaching parents about why most children should be immunized against varicella (chickenpox) and why some receiving specific medications should not. Which medication should be included in the discussion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Steroids. Children receiving steroids should not receive the varicella vaccine as it can increase the risk of severe infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of steroids. Insulin (Choice A) is not a medication that contraindicates varicella vaccination. Antibiotics (Choice C) and anticonvulsants (Choice D) are also not medications that would impact the decision to immunize against varicella.
A 2-year-old child with a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder is being discharged. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to maintain a structured routine. Children with autism spectrum disorder benefit greatly from structured routines as they provide a sense of stability and predictability, which can help reduce anxiety and improve behavior. Encouraging social interaction (Choice B) is important but may need to be approached in a structured manner to prevent overwhelming the child. Positive reinforcement (Choice C) is also beneficial for behavior management but may not address the overall need for routine and predictability that is crucial for children with autism. Using a communication board (Choice D) may be helpful for facilitating communication, but establishing and maintaining a structured routine is fundamental for supporting the child's development and well-being in managing their autism spectrum disorder.
During an assessment, a nurse is examining the skin of a child with cellulitis. What would the nurse expect to find?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Warmth at skin disruption site.' Cellulitis is characterized by localized warmth at the site of skin disruption, which indicates an infection. Choice A, 'Red, raised hair follicles,' is more typical of folliculitis. Choice C, 'Papules progressing to vesicles,' is suggestive of conditions like herpes simplex virus infections. Choice D, 'Honey-colored exudate,' is associated with impetigo, not cellulitis. When assessing cellulitis, nurses should primarily look for warmth, erythema, edema, and tenderness at the affected site.
What is the most important intervention for a nurse to implement for a child with sickle cell anemia admitted to the hospital during a vaso-occlusive crisis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ensuring adequate hydration is crucial during a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia as it helps to reduce the viscosity of the blood and prevent further sickling of the cells. While administering oxygen may be necessary in some cases, ensuring hydration takes precedence as it directly impacts the underlying pathophysiology of the crisis. Monitoring vital signs is important for ongoing assessment but does not directly address the crisis as hydration does. Administering pain medication is important for pain relief but does not address the primary issue of vaso-occlusion and is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario.
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a 7-year-old boy with diabetes insipidus. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing diagnosis for a 7-year-old boy with diabetes insipidus is deficient fluid volume related to dehydration. Diabetes insipidus causes excessive thirst and urination, leading to fluid imbalance and potential dehydration. Choice B, excess fluid volume related to edema, is not a priority as diabetes insipidus is characterized by fluid loss, not retention. Choice C, deficient knowledge related to fluid intake regimen, may be important but is not the priority when the child is at risk of dehydration. Choice D, imbalanced nutrition related to excess weight, is not directly associated with the primary concern of fluid volume imbalance in diabetes insipidus.
On the third day of hospitalization, the nurse observes that a 2-year-old toddler who had been screaming and crying inconsolably begins to regress and is now lying quietly in the crib with a blanket. What stage of separation anxiety has developed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Despair'. In separation anxiety, the stage of despair is characterized by regression and withdrawal after the initial protest. The toddler's shift from intense crying to lying quietly with a blanket demonstrates this withdrawal behavior. Choice A, 'Denial', is incorrect as denial involves refusing to accept the reality of separation. Choice C, 'Mistrust', is incorrect as it relates to a lack of trust rather than the stage of separation anxiety described in the scenario. Choice D, 'Rejection', is incorrect as it does not reflect the behavior of the toddler in the scenario, which is more indicative of withdrawal and regression.
.A nurse is performing a physical examination on an infant with Down syndrome. For what anomaly should the nurse assess the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Abnormal heart sounds could indicate a congenital heart defect, which is common in infants with Down syndrome.
What is the first action to take before administering tube feeding to an infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action before administering tube feeding to an infant is to offer a pacifier. Providing a pacifier stimulates the sucking reflex, aiding in digestion and providing comfort to the infant. Irrigating the tube with water (Choice A) is not typically the initial step and could potentially introduce unnecessary fluid into the infant's system. Slowly instilling formula (Choice C) should only be done after ensuring the tube is appropriately placed. Placing the infant in the Trendelenburg position (Choice D) is not necessary for tube feeding and could pose risks such as aspiration.
When assessing a child with a possible fracture, what would be the most reliable indicator for the nurse to identify?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Point tenderness is the most reliable indicator of a possible fracture in a child. It refers to localized pain at a specific point, indicating a potential bone injury. Lack of spontaneous movement (Choice A) is non-specific and can be due to various reasons. Bruising (Choice C) may be present in fractures but is not as specific as point tenderness. Inability to bear weight (Choice D) can also be seen in fractures but may not always be present, making it less reliable compared to point tenderness.
Which observation of the exposed abdomen is most indicative of pyloric stenosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In pyloric stenosis, a palpable olive-like mass in the abdomen is a classic finding. This mass is due to the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Abdominal rigidity (choice A) is associated with conditions like peritonitis, substernal retraction (choice B) is typically seen in respiratory distress, and marked distention of the lower abdomen (choice D) is more characteristic of conditions like intestinal obstruction rather than pyloric stenosis.
A 6-year-old child with a diagnosis of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is being discharged. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging regular physical activity is crucial in managing symptoms and improving joint function in juvenile idiopathic arthritis. It helps maintain joint mobility, muscle strength, and overall well-being. Providing a high-calorie diet (Choice B) is not typically recommended unless there are specific nutritional concerns or growth issues. A low-sodium diet (Choice C) may be beneficial in conditions like hypertension, but it is not a primary focus for JIA management. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is not a routine part of managing JIA unless specifically indicated for hydration or medication administration.
A child with a diagnosis of celiac disease is being discharged. What dietary instructions should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Avoid gluten.' Celiac disease is a condition in which the immune system reacts to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Avoiding gluten is essential in managing celiac disease as it helps prevent damage to the small intestine and alleviate symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dairy products, high-fat foods, and foods high in sugar do not directly relate to the management of celiac disease. It is crucial to focus on eliminating gluten-containing foods to effectively control the condition.
An additional defect is associated with exstrophy of the bladder. For what anomaly should the nurse assess the infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, pubic bone malformation. Exstrophy of the bladder is commonly associated with pubic bone malformation because the condition involves a defect in the pelvic region. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Imperforate anus, absence of one kidney, and congenital heart disease are not typically associated with exstrophy of the bladder.
The healthcare provider is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Visible peristalsis and weight loss are classic clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis. Visible peristalsis refers to the wave-like movements in the abdomen caused by the stomach trying to empty into the intestines due to the obstruction at the pylorus. Weight loss is often seen due to inadequate feeding and vomiting associated with this condition. Choices A, B, and D are not typical of pyloric stenosis. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation are more indicative of conditions like peritonitis. A rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds are more suggestive of conditions like constipation or bowel obstruction. Distention of the lower abdomen and constipation are not specific to pyloric stenosis and may be seen in various gastrointestinal issues.
What finding would the nurse expect to assess in a child with hypothyroidism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Weight gain is the expected finding in a child with hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism leads to a slowed metabolism, which can result in weight gain. Choices A, B, and C are not typical findings in hypothyroidism. Nervousness and heat intolerance are more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, where the body is in a state of overactivity. Smooth velvety skin is not a characteristic sign of hypothyroidism.
A 3-year-old child ingests a substance that may be a poison. The parent calls a neighbor who is a nurse and asks what to do. What should the nurse recommend the parent do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases of potential poisoning, the best immediate action to take is to call the poison control center. Administering syrup of ipecac is no longer recommended as it can lead to complications such as aspiration and may interfere with subsequent treatments. Taking the child to the emergency department should only be done if advised by the poison control center or if the child is showing severe symptoms. Giving bread dipped in milk to absorb the poison is not an appropriate or effective treatment for poisoning, as it does not address the toxicity of the ingested substance and may delay appropriate medical interventions.
What should parents be taught when a 7-year-old child with a history of seizures is being discharged from the hospital?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Teaching seizure first aid to family members is crucial in ensuring the child's safety during a seizure. This education empowers family members to respond effectively, protect the child from injury, and provide appropriate care. Option A is incorrect because antiepileptic medication should be administered as prescribed, not only when a seizure occurs. Option B, while important for overall health, is not specific to managing seizures. Option C is incorrect as there is no evidence that restricting activities prevents seizures, and it may negatively impact the child's quality of life without offering additional safety benefits.
How should a nurse prepare a 15-month-old child diagnosed with hydrocephalus for a computed tomography (CT) scan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Preparing a toddler for a CT scan involves providing a simple explanation of the procedure to help reduce anxiety and fear. Shaving the child's head is unnecessary for a CT scan and may increase distress. Starting an IV infusion or administering sedatives may not be appropriate or necessary for all pediatric patients undergoing CT scans, especially if the child can cooperate without these interventions.
A nurse in the emergency department observes large welts and scars on the back of a child who has been admitted for an asthma attack. What additional information must be included in the nurse's assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Signs of child abuse. Large welts and scars on a child may be indicative of abuse, making it crucial for the nurse to assess and report any suspicions. Assessing the history of an injury (choice A) may not provide insight into the cause of the welts and scars as effectively as looking for signs of potential abuse. Food allergies (choice C) and recent recovery from chickenpox (choice D) are not directly relevant to the observation of welts and scars on the child's back.
The mother of a 5-year-old child with eczema is getting a check-up for her child before school starts. What will the nurse do during the visit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a check-up for a child with eczema, assessing compliance with treatment regimens is a key nursing intervention. This helps ensure that the child is following the prescribed treatment plan effectively, which is crucial in managing eczema and preventing flare-ups. Changing a bandage on a cut is not directly related to managing eczema. Discussing systemic corticosteroid therapy may be part of the visit, but assessing compliance is more immediate and essential. Assessing the child's fluid volume is important for overall health assessment but not specifically related to managing eczema.
A parent tearfully tells a nurse, 'They think our child is developmentally delayed. We are thinking about investigating a preschool program for cognitively impaired children.' What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate response in this situation is to ask for more specific information related to the developmental delays. By seeking additional details, the nurse can better understand the child's needs and provide tailored guidance and support to the parent. Praising the parent (Choice A) before fully grasping the situation may not be beneficial. Advising the parent to involve the healthcare provider in selecting a program (Choice C) is premature without a comprehensive understanding of the child's developmental delays. Explaining that the delays might resolve on their own (Choice D) is inappropriate as it dismisses the parent's concerns and the necessity for timely and appropriate interventions.
A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant's discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Live vaccines, like the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine, should not be administered to immunosuppressed infants, such as those undergoing chemotherapy. The weakened immune system of these infants may not be able to handle live vaccines safely, potentially leading to severe complications. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid giving live vaccines like MMR to infants receiving chemotherapy. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age is not the main concern in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because although MMR vaccination is important for disease prevention, it should not be given to immunosuppressed infants. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is needed to prevent potential harm from live vaccines in immunosuppressed infants.
A major developmental milestone of a toddler is the achievement of autonomy. What should the caregiver instruct the parents to do to enhance their toddler's need for autonomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Toddlers are striving for autonomy during this developmental stage. Helping the child to develop internal controls, such as self-regulation and decision-making skills, enhances their sense of autonomy. Choice A, teaching the child to share, focuses more on social skills rather than autonomy. Choice B, helping the child learn society's roles, pertains to socialization rather than autonomy. Choice C, teaching the child to accept external limits, is about compliance with rules rather than fostering autonomy. Therefore, the most appropriate action to enhance a toddler's need for autonomy is to help them develop internal controls.
The parents of a newborn with phenylketonuria (PKU) need help and support in adhering to specific dietary restrictions. They ask the nurse, "How long will our child have to be on this diet?" How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: "This is a lifelong problem, and it is recommended that dietary restrictions must be continued." PKU requires a lifelong adherence to a specific diet low in phenylalanine to prevent cognitive and developmental issues. Phenylalanine buildup can lead to irreversible damage, making it crucial for individuals with PKU to maintain dietary restrictions throughout their lives. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the lifelong nature of dietary restrictions necessary for PKU management.
A nurse is evaluating a 3-year-old child's developmental progress. The inability to perform which task indicates to the nurse that there is a developmental delay?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The inability to copy a square at 3 years old indicates a potential developmental delay in fine motor skills. At this age, children should be able to copy basic shapes like circles and crosses. Hopping on one foot is typically expected around the age of 4, catching a ball reliably around 5, and using a spoon effectively by 2-3 years old. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are not as indicative of a developmental delay at 3 years old as the inability to copy a square.
.A 7-month-old girl is to be catheterized to obtain a sterile urine specimen. One of the infant's parents expresses fear that this procedure may traumatize the baby psychologically. How should the nurse provide reassurance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
While catheterization can be uncomfortable, it does not typically result in long-term psychological harm, and obtaining a sterile specimen is important for accurate diagnosis.
When evaluating the laboratory report of a 1-year-old infant's hematocrit, a healthcare provider compares it with the expected hematocrit range for this age group. What is the hematocrit of a healthy 12-month-old infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct hematocrit range for a healthy 12-month-old infant is between 37% to 47%. At this age, this range reflects the normal blood volume and red blood cell (RBC) levels in infants. Choice A (19% to 32%) is too low for a healthy hematocrit level in a 12-month-old. Choice B (29% to 41%) is also below the typical range for a 12-month-old. Choice D (42% to 69%) includes an upper limit that is higher than expected for a healthy infant, making it an incorrect option.
A 13-year-old girl tells the nurse at the pediatric clinic that she took a pregnancy test and it was positive. She adds that her grandfather, with whom she, her younger sisters, and her mother live, has repeatedly molested her for the past 3 years. When the nurse asks the girl if she has told this to anyone, she replies, 'Yes, but my mother doesn't believe me.' Legally, who should the nurse notify?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should notify Child Protective Services for immediate intervention. The girl disclosed ongoing sexual abuse by her grandfather, which is a serious concern requiring immediate protection and intervention by the appropriate authorities. Child Protective Services are trained to handle cases of child abuse and neglect, ensuring the safety and well-being of the child. While notifying the police about a possible sex crime is crucial, Child Protective Services should be the first point of contact in cases of suspected child abuse due to their specialized role. Confirming the pregnancy through a healthcare provider is not the priority at this moment, as ensuring the safety of the child is paramount. Informing the girl's mother about the positive test result is not appropriate given the lack of belief in the abuse disclosure and the potential risk to the child's safety.
When evaluating the laboratory report of a 1-year-old infant's hematocrit, a healthcare professional compares it with the expected hematocrit range for this age group. What is the hematocrit of a healthy 12-month-old infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 37% to 47%. The normal hematocrit range for a 12-month-old infant is between 37% to 47%, which reflects the expected blood volume and red blood cell levels for this age. Choice A (19% to 32%) and Choice B (29% to 41%) are too low and do not encompass the typical hematocrit range for a healthy 1-year-old. Choice D (42% to 69%) is too high and falls outside the usual hematocrit values for this age group.
Parents of a sick infant talk with a nurse about their baby. One parent says, "I am so upset; I didn't realize our baby was ill." What major indication of illness in an infant should the nurse explain to the parent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Longer periods of sleep than usual can be a sign of illness in infants. When an infant sleeps more than usual, it may indicate that the baby is conserving energy due to an underlying condition. Grunting respirations (choice A) can be a sign of respiratory distress, excessive perspiration (choice B) may indicate overheating or fever, and crying immediately after feedings (choice D) can be a sign of gastrointestinal discomfort, such as colic or reflux. However, in this scenario, the emphasis is on changes in sleep patterns as a potential indicator of illness.
During a vaccination drive at a well-child clinic, a nurse observes that a recently hired nurse is not wearing gloves. What should the nurse advise the newly hired nurse to do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: "Put on gloves because standard precautions are required." Standard precautions are essential in healthcare settings to prevent the transmission of infections, and wearing gloves is a crucial part of these precautions during immunizations. Choice A is incorrect because speaking with the nurse manager about techniques does not address the immediate need for wearing gloves. Choice C is incorrect because gloves are indeed needed to prevent the spread of infections. Choice D is incorrect as evaluating the child's appearance is not a substitute for wearing gloves which are a basic infection control measure.
During the second week of hospitalization for intravenous antibiotic therapy, a 2-year-old toddler whose family is unable to visit often smiles easily, goes to all the nurses happily, and does not express interest in the parent when the parent does visit. The parent tells the nurse, 'I am pleased about the adjustment but somewhat concerned about my child's reaction to me.' How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'The child has given up fighting and accepts the separation.' This response indicates that the child is emotionally withdrawing due to the separation from the parent during hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because the child's behavior does not necessarily suggest repressed feelings for the parent. Choice B is incorrect as feeling safe due to established routines does not fully explain the child's behavior. Choice D is incorrect because while feeling better physically may contribute to improved behavior, it does not address the emotional aspect of the child's reaction to the parent.
The nurse is assessing a 13-year-old boy with type 2 diabetes mellitus. What would the nurse correlate with the disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Excessive thirst (polydipsia) is a common symptom of type 2 diabetes mellitus, indicating high blood glucose levels. This symptom occurs due to the body trying to get rid of excess glucose through urine, leading to dehydration and increased thirst. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is more indicative of a recent viral illness rather than a symptom of diabetes. Choice B, decreased blood pressure, is not typically associated with type 2 diabetes; in fact, diabetes can often lead to hypertension. Choice D, Kussmaul breathing, is more characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis, which is more common in type 1 diabetes rather than type 2 diabetes.
What is the priority nursing responsibility when a 3-year-old child in a crib is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure with a clamped jaw?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority nursing responsibility is to protect the child from self-injury. Applying restraints (Choice A) can cause harm by restricting movement during the seizure. While administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary, it is not the immediate priority during an active seizure. Inserting a plastic airway (Choice D) is contraindicated as it can lead to injury and is not recommended during a seizure. Protecting the child from self-injury (Choice C) is crucial to prevent harm from uncontrolled movements and potential falls, ensuring the safety of the child.
A child has coarctation of the aorta. What does the nurse expect to identify when taking the child's vital signs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a child has coarctation of the aorta, the nurse would expect to identify a weak radial pulse when taking the child's vital signs. Coarctation of the aorta results in a narrowing of the aorta, leading to reduced blood flow and a weakened pulse. An irregular heartbeat (Choice B) is less likely to be associated with coarctation of the aorta. Similarly, a bounding femoral pulse (Choice C) is not typically observed with this condition. An elevated radial blood pressure (Choice D) is less common as coarctation of the aorta usually causes decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to the aortic narrowing.
A parent calls the outpatient clinic requesting information about the appropriate dose of acetaminophen for a 16-month-old child who has signs of an upper respiratory tract infection and fever. The directions on the bottle of acetaminophen elixir are 120 mg every 4 hours when needed. At the toddler's 15-month visit, the health care provider prescribed 150 mg. What is the nurse's best response to the parent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most accurate way to determine a therapeutic dose for children is based on their weight rather than age. Weight-based dosing helps ensure that the child receives the appropriate amount of medication for their body size, which is crucial for safety and effectiveness. Age-based dosing can lead to underdosing or overdosing, as children of the same age can have significantly different weights. Choice A is incorrect because even small variations in dosages can have significant effects on a child's health. Choice B is incorrect as acetaminophen can be appropriate when used correctly for fever management in children. Choice C is incorrect as children's weights can vary greatly within the same age group, making weight-based dosing more precise and individualized.
A parent of a 2-year-old child tells a nurse at the clinic, 'Whenever I go to the store, my child has a screaming tantrum, demanding a toy or candy on the shelves. How can I deal with this situation?' What is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's best response is to allow the tantrum to continue until it ends without giving in to the child's demands. By not rewarding the child with the desired item during a tantrum, the child learns that this behavior is not effective in getting what they want. Offering a toy to distract the child (Choice A) may reinforce the idea that tantrums lead to rewards. Leaving the child with a babysitter (Choice C) does not address the issue at hand, which is teaching the child appropriate behavior in public places. Giving the child the item temporarily (Choice D) may encourage the child to have tantrums in the future to obtain desired items.
A parent of an 11-month-old infant who has a cleft palate asks the nurse why it was recommended that closure of the palate should be done before the age of 2. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Closure of the cleft palate is recommended before the age of 2 to prevent the development of faulty speech patterns. Performing surgery at a younger age helps avoid speech difficulties that may arise if the repair is delayed. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on fear, not the developmental aspect. Choice B is incorrect as the eruption of molars is not the primary reason for early surgery. Choice C is incorrect because the difficulty of repair is not solely related to the width of the palate but also to speech development.
What intervention best meets a major developmental need of a newborn in the immediate postoperative period?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is giving a pacifier to the newborn. Sucking is a natural reflex and a source of comfort for newborns, especially postoperatively. A pacifier can help meet their developmental needs by providing soothing comfort. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the major developmental need related to the newborn's comfort and reflexes postoperatively. Putting a mobile over the crib, providing a cuddly toy, or warming formula, although potentially beneficial in other contexts, do not specifically target the developmental need of sucking for comfort. Offering a pacifier is a safe and effective way to address this developmental need in newborns.
After completing an oral examination of a healthy 2-year-old child, the parent asks when the child should first be taken to the dentist. When is the most appropriate time in the child's life for the nurse to suggest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is recommended that a child should visit the dentist within the next few months after turning two years old. This allows for early dental check-ups to monitor oral health, detect any issues early on, and establish a good oral hygiene routine. Choice A ('Before starting school') is not as specific and may delay the child's first dental visit. Choice C ('When the first deciduous teeth are lost') is too late for the first dental visit, as preventive care should start earlier. Choice D ('At the next dental visit of a family member') is not ideal as the child's dental needs should be addressed independently of family members' visits.
A parent calls the outpatient clinic requesting information about the appropriate dose of acetaminophen for a 16-month-old child who has signs of an upper respiratory tract infection and fever. The directions on the bottle of acetaminophen elixir are 120 mg every 4 hours when needed. At the toddler's 15-month visit, the healthcare provider prescribed 150 mg. What is the nurse's best response to the parent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most accurate way to determine a therapeutic dose for children is based on their weight rather than age. Weight-based dosing accounts for individual variations in drug metabolism and distribution, ensuring a more precise and safer medication administration. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the importance of weight-based dosing in children, potentially leading to inappropriate dosing and safety concerns.
When a parent tells a nurse at the clinic, 'Each morning I offer my 24-month-old child juice, and all I hear is 'No.' What should I do because I know my child needs fluid?' What strategy should the nurse suggest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should suggest offering the child a choice of two juices. Giving the child a choice between two options empowers them to make a decision, fostering a sense of control, and increasing the likelihood of cooperation. This approach respects the child's autonomy while addressing the parent's concern about the child's fluid intake. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because distracting the child, offering the glass in a firm manner, or displaying anger are not effective strategies for encouraging a 24-month-old child to drink juice.
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