HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. The nurse should explain to a client with lung cancer that pleurodesis is performed to achieve which expected outcome?
- A. Debulk tumor to maintain patency of air passages
- B. Relieve empyema after pneumonectomy
- C. Prevent the formation of effusion fluid
- D. Remove fluid from the intrapleural space
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pleurodesis is a procedure used to prevent the re-accumulation of pleural effusion by creating adhesion between the pleurae. This helps prevent the formation of effusion fluid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pleurodesis is not performed to debulk tumors, relieve empyema after pneumonectomy, or remove fluid from the intrapleural space. Understanding the purpose of pleurodesis is essential in providing accurate patient education and care.
2. The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach
- B. Teaching the client how to push to decrease the length of the second stage of labor
- C. Timing and recording uterine contractions
- D. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a laboring client following administration of regional anesthesia is to position the client for proper distribution of anesthesia. Proper positioning ensures effective pain management during labor, optimizing the effects of the regional anesthesia. While raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach (choice A) is important for safety, teaching the client how to push (choice B) and timing and recording uterine contractions (choice C) are vital aspects of care but are not the highest priority immediately after administering regional anesthesia.
3. A premature infant weighing 1,200 grams at birth receives a prescription for beractant (Survanta) 120 mg endotracheal now and q6 hr for 24 hr. The recommended dose for beractant is 100 mg/kg birth weight per dose. Single-use vials of Survanta are labeled 100 mg/4 ml. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Give 4.8 ml q6 hr
- B. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high
- C. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low
- D. Give 1.2 ml q6 hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to give 4.8 ml q6 hr. To calculate the dose, you divide the prescribed dose of 120 mg by the concentration of Survanta, which is 100 mg per 4 ml. This results in 4.8 ml per dose, as 120 mg ÷ 100 mg/4 ml = 4.8 ml. Option B suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high is incorrect because the calculated dose of 4.8 ml is based on the recommended dose of 100 mg/kg birth weight. Option C suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low is incorrect as the calculated dose is based on the correct dosage calculation. Option D suggesting to give 1.2 ml q6 hr is incorrect because it doesn't align with the correct calculation.
4. The nurse is providing care for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which intervention is most appropriate to include in the care plan?
- A. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing
- B. Recommend a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet
- C. Limit physical activity to prevent shortness of breath
- D. Encourage the client to drink large amounts of fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve ventilation and reduce shortness of breath in COPD clients. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet is not recommended for individuals with COPD as it can lead to weight gain and worsen respiratory function. Choice C is incorrect as limiting physical activity can lead to deconditioning and worsen COPD symptoms. Regular, moderate exercise is beneficial for individuals with COPD. Choice D is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can strain the heart in COPD clients. It is important to maintain adequate but not excessive fluid intake to prevent dehydration and maintain optimal lung function.
5. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?
- A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
- B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
- C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
- D. CD4 blood cell count of 300
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.
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