HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. A 17-year-old adolescent is brought to the emergency department by both parents because the adolescent has been coughing and running a fever with flu-like symptoms for the past 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain a chest X-ray per protocol.
- B. Place a mask on the client’s face.
- C. Assess the client’s temperature.
- D. Determine the client’s blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement first is to place a mask on the client's face. This is crucial to prevent the potential spread of infectious agents to others in the emergency department, considering the presenting symptoms of coughing and fever. Placing a mask helps in containing respiratory secretions and reducing the risk of airborne transmission. Assessing the client’s temperature or blood pressure can be done after ensuring infection control measures. Obtaining a chest X-ray would be a secondary intervention once immediate infection control is addressed.
2. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?
- A. 18
- B. 27
- C. 36
- D. 45
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.
3. The nurse administers an oral antiviral to a client with shingles. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Decreased white blood cell count
- B. Pruritus and muscle aches
- C. Elevated liver function tests
- D. Vomiting and diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated liver function tests. When administering antivirals, especially orally, monitoring liver function tests is crucial as it may indicate liver toxicity. This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choice A, decreased white blood cell count, may be expected with certain antivirals but is not the most critical finding in this scenario. Pruritus and muscle aches (choice B) are common side effects of antivirals and do not require immediate reporting. Vomiting and diarrhea (choice D) are also common side effects that may not be as concerning as elevated liver function tests.
4. A premature infant weighing 1,200 grams at birth receives a prescription for beractant (Survanta) 120 mg endotracheal now and q6 hr for 24 hr. The recommended dose for beractant is 100 mg/kg birth weight per dose. Single-use vials of Survanta are labeled 100 mg/4 ml. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Give 4.8 ml q6 hr
- B. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high
- C. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low
- D. Give 1.2 ml q6 hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to give 4.8 ml q6 hr. To calculate the dose, you divide the prescribed dose of 120 mg by the concentration of Survanta, which is 100 mg per 4 ml. This results in 4.8 ml per dose, as 120 mg ÷ 100 mg/4 ml = 4.8 ml. Option B suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high is incorrect because the calculated dose of 4.8 ml is based on the recommended dose of 100 mg/kg birth weight. Option C suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low is incorrect as the calculated dose is based on the correct dosage calculation. Option D suggesting to give 1.2 ml q6 hr is incorrect because it doesn't align with the correct calculation.
5. In what sequence should the nurse prepare the dose of insulin for a client whose finger stick glucose is 210 mg/dl and is receiving a sliding scale dose of short-acting insulin before breakfast?
- A. Clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab, withdraw the correct dose of insulin, and then inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial.
- B. Inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial, withdraw the correct dose of insulin, and then clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab.
- C. Withdraw the correct dose of insulin, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial, and then clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab.
- D. Clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial, and then withdraw the correct dose of insulin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence for preparing a dose of insulin involves ensuring proper aseptic technique. First, clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab to prevent contamination. Second, withdraw the correct dose of insulin to be administered. Lastly, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial to maintain proper pressure for withdrawing the medication. This sequence ensures the medication is prepared safely and accurately. Choice A is correct as it follows this sequence. Choices B, C, and D present incorrect sequences that may compromise patient safety by not following the correct aseptic technique. Choice B injects air into the vial before withdrawing insulin, which is incorrect. Choice C reverses the order of withdrawing insulin and injecting air. Choice D withdraws the insulin before injecting air, which can affect the pressure inside the vial and lead to inaccurate dosing.
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