Free HESI LPN Mental Health Nursing practice for HESI Mental Health Practice Exam (HESI LPN). Answer 51 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode,
At a support meeting of parents of a teenager with polysubstance dependency, a parent states, 'Each time my son tries to quit taking drugs, he gets so depressed that I'm afraid he will commit suicide.' The nurse's response should be based on which information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response in this situation should focus on the connection between feelings of depression and drug abuse. Choice A is incorrect because addiction is treatable, not incurable. Choice B is incorrect as tolerance does not directly cause depression. Choice D is not the best response as the parent's concern is about the son's depression leading to suicidal thoughts, not just the withdrawal process.
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day washing his hands. What is the best nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to discuss their compulsions is the best nursing intervention when caring for a client with OCD who spends excessive time on hand-washing. This approach can help the client identify underlying anxieties and triggers associated with the compulsive behavior. Restricting access to soap and water (Choice A) can lead to increased anxiety and worsen the obsession. Allowing the client to continue the behavior (Choice C) can perpetuate the compulsive cycle. Scheduling distracting activities (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the behavior.
A client diagnosed with undifferentiated schizophrenia is being discharged on aripiprazole (Abilify) 5 mg every night. When developing the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects, which of the following should the nurse include? Select one that does not apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Torticollis. Common side effects of aripiprazole include headaches, mild anxiety, and insomnia. These side effects are manageable during treatment. Torticollis is not a common adverse effect associated with aripiprazole and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions. Therefore, the nurse should not include torticollis in the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects of aripiprazole.
For a female client with major depressive disorder reporting feelings of hopelessness and helplessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the client's risk for suicide. When a client expresses feelings of hopelessness and helplessness, it indicates a high risk of self-harm or suicide. Therefore, the priority intervention should be to assess the client's safety. Encouraging the client to join a support group (choice A) may be beneficial but not the priority at this time. Referring the client for cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) (choice B) and suggesting daily exercise (choice D) are important interventions in managing depression but assessing the risk for suicide takes precedence due to the immediate safety concern.
Which client information indicates the need for the nurse to use the CAGE questionnaire during the admission interview?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Describing oneself as a social drinker who consumes alcoholic beverages daily raises concerns about potential alcohol abuse issues. The CAGE questionnaire is a tool used to screen for alcohol use disorder. Choice A is incorrect as memory difficulties post-traumatic brain injury do not directly indicate a need for the CAGE questionnaire. Choice B is incorrect as the use of antidepressants, while important to note, does not specifically warrant the use of the CAGE questionnaire. Choice D is incorrect as a recent sexual assault, while significant, does not directly relate to the need for alcohol abuse screening using the CAGE questionnaire.
A nurse is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The client reports experiencing nausea. What is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: "Nausea is a common side effect of sertraline, and clients should be reassured that it usually decreases as their body adjusts to the medication." Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Choice C is a good suggestion to reduce nausea by taking the medication with food but does not address the temporary nature of the side effect. Choice D is unnecessary at this point since nausea is a common side effect that may improve with time.
A male client with alcohol use disorder is admitted for detoxification. The nurse knows that which symptom is a sign of severe alcohol withdrawal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Seizures are a sign of severe alcohol withdrawal and can be life-threatening, requiring immediate medical attention. Bradycardia, hyperglycemia, and constipation are not typically associated with severe alcohol withdrawal. Bradycardia is more commonly seen in opioid withdrawal, hyperglycemia could be due to other reasons like uncontrolled diabetes, and constipation is not a typical symptom of severe alcohol withdrawal.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with major depressive disorder who is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice A is incorrect as dizziness is a common side effect but not the most important teaching point. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-rich foods is more relevant for MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as fluoxetine should be taken consistently, not only when the client feels depressed, to maintain therapeutic blood levels.
A young adult male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a recent suicide attempt. His wife filed for divorce six months ago, he lost his job three months ago, and his best friend moved to another city two weeks ago. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging activities that allow the client to exert control over his environment can be therapeutic in cases of depression and stress. It helps improve the client's sense of agency, which is essential for promoting feelings of empowerment and self-worth. Choice A could potentially be overwhelming for the client, especially considering his recent suicide attempt and ongoing stressors. Choice B might not be the most beneficial intervention as isolation could further exacerbate feelings of loneliness and hopelessness. Choice C, avoiding discussing upsetting subjects, may prevent the client from addressing and processing his emotions, hindering therapeutic progress.
A nurse working in the emergency room of a children's hospital admits a child whose injuries could have resulted from abuse. Which statement most accurately describes the nurse's responsibility in cases of suspected child abuse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Report any case of suspected child abuse.' Nurses are mandated reporters, which means they are legally obligated to report any suspicions of child abuse to appropriate authorities to ensure the child's safety. This responsibility overrides the need to gather additional data or confirm suspicions with others before reporting. Choice A is incorrect because delaying reporting to gather more data may risk the child's safety. Choice B is incorrect because reporting suspicions promptly is crucial, and waiting to confirm with another healthcare provider could delay necessary intervention. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to report suspicions promptly rather than focusing on documenting injuries to confirm abuse.
A young adult male with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the psychiatric unit for detoxification. He is agitated, sweating, and reports seeing bugs crawling on the walls. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer the prescribed benzodiazepine. This intervention helps manage the client's agitation and hallucinations, which are common symptoms during detoxification from substances. Reassuring the client that the bugs are not real (Choice A) may not be effective in addressing the underlying causes of the hallucinations. Placing the client in a quiet, dark room (Choice C) may help reduce sensory stimulation but does not directly address the client's symptoms. Encouraging the client to express his feelings (Choice D) is important for therapeutic communication but may not be the priority when the client is experiencing severe agitation and hallucinations.
The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with schizophrenia who is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asking the client to describe the voices he hears is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. It helps the nurse assess the content and severity of the hallucinations, enabling the planning of appropriate interventions. Choice A is not as effective as directly addressing the hallucinations. Choice C may lead to mistrust as the client believes the voices are real. Choice D does not address the client's immediate need related to the hallucinations.
A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.
The LPN/LVN calls security and has physical restraints applied when a client who was admitted voluntarily becomes both physically and verbally abusive while demanding to be discharged from the hospital. Which represents the possible legal ramifications for the nurse associated with these interventions? Select one that does not apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the possible legal ramifications for the nurse could include battery, assault, and false imprisonment. Battery refers to the intentional harmful or offensive touching of another person without consent, which could be perceived when applying physical restraints. Assault is the apprehension of harmful or offensive contact, creating fear in the individual, which can result from the verbal threats and physical actions of the patient. False imprisonment occurs when a person is unlawfully restrained, which may apply if the patient was involuntarily restrained. Slander, on the other hand, is the oral defamation of character, which does not align with the actions described in the scenario, making it the choice that does not apply.
The nurse is leading a 'current events group' with chronic psychiatric clients. One group member states, 'Clara Barton was my nurse during my last hospitalization. She was a very mean nurse and wasn't nice to me.' Which response would be best for the nurse to make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
(D) presents the reality of the situation in relation to American culture. The fact that Clara Barton was a nurse during the Civil War should be addressed on an individual basis. Since this is group therapy, the nurse would be illustrating the concept of universality. (A) is likely to promote defensiveness. (B and C) would support the delusion. Therefore, the most appropriate response is (D) as it provides factual information that can redirect the conversation in a constructive manner.
A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly agitated and combative in the late afternoon. What is the most appropriate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment is the most appropriate intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease who is becoming agitated and combative in the late afternoon. This approach helps reduce agitation and prevent overstimulation, providing a calming and soothing environment for the client. Offering a sedative medication (Choice A) should be avoided as it may have side effects and should only be considered as a last resort. Reality orientation (Choice C) may increase confusion and distress in clients with advanced Alzheimer's disease. Engaging the client in physical activity (Choice D) could potentially escalate the agitation rather than reduce it in this scenario.
The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority is to manage the client's medication adherence to prevent escalation of manic behavior. Inflated self-esteem is the highest priority as it indicates the client's potential for harmful behaviors due to lack of medication compliance. While excessive work activity and decreased need for sleep are characteristics of mania, they are not as immediately concerning as the risk of harm related to inflated self-esteem.
In a mental health unit of a hospital, a LPN/LVN is leading a group psychotherapy session. What is the nurse's role in the termination stage of group development?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the termination stage of group development in psychotherapy, the nurse's role is to acknowledge the contributions of each group member. This action helps to close the group on a positive note, reinforcing the therapeutic experience. Choice A, encouraging problem-solving, is more relevant in the earlier stages of group development. Choice B, encouraging the accomplishment of the group's work, is important throughout the group process but is not specific to the termination stage. Choice D, encouraging members to become acquainted with one another, is more aligned with the initial stages of group formation rather than the termination stage.
During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with bipolar disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder often experience excessive energy and impulsivity. Providing a quiet and structured environment is crucial to help manage these symptoms. This intervention promotes stability, reduces overstimulation, and supports the client in regaining control over their behaviors. Choices A and C may exacerbate impulsivity and overstimulation, while choice D does not address the need for environmental structure and may not be effective in managing manic symptoms.
A client with depression reports difficulty sleeping. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with depression reporting difficulty sleeping is to suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime. A warm beverage can promote relaxation and help establish a bedtime routine, which may aid in improving sleep quality. Encouraging short naps during the day (Choice A) may disrupt the client's nighttime sleep pattern. Recommending exercise immediately before bedtime (Choice C) can have a stimulating effect, making it harder for the client to fall asleep. Advising the client to take a sleep aid nightly (Choice D) should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have been attempted and in consultation with a healthcare provider due to potential side effects and risks associated with sleep aids.
Which statement best demonstrates the nurse's role in ensuring that each client's rights are respected?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The statement 'Being respectful and concerned will ensure attentiveness to clients' rights' best demonstrates the nurse's role in ensuring that each client's rights are respected. This choice emphasizes the importance of being attentive and considerate towards clients to uphold their rights. Choice A is too general and lacks the direct connection to the nurse's role. Choice B highlights the legal aspect but does not specifically address the nurse's role. Choice D, although true, is not as comprehensive as choice C in describing the nurse's active role in respecting client rights.
How should the RN respond to the mother?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to ask the mother if she has ever thought about harming herself or her child. This is crucial to assess for suicidal or homicidal thoughts, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the child. Reassuring the mother about achieving some milestones may not address her immediate emotional distress. Inquiring about other children's developmental status is not the priority when safety concerns are present. While journaling can be therapeutic, in this situation, addressing safety takes precedence.
A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The client asks, 'How long will it take for this medication to work?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Explaining that it may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect provides the client with a realistic expectation. SSRI medications typically require time to build up in the body and exert their therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect as it underestimates the time frame required for the medication to work. Choice B is incorrect as SSRIs do not produce immediate effects. Choice C is incorrect as it falsely states that the medication works immediately, which is not true for SSRIs.
The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal, the first intervention the nurse should implement is to monitor the client's vital signs. Vital sign monitoring is crucial to assess for any potential complications such as hypertension, tachycardia, fever, or other signs of autonomic hyperactivity. Administering medication like lorazepam (Ativan) would come after assessing the vital signs to determine the need for pharmacological intervention. Placing the client on seizure precautions is important, but assessing vital signs takes precedence to ensure immediate safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings about withdrawal is a supportive intervention but does not address the immediate physiological risk associated with alcohol withdrawal.
A newly admitted client describes her mission in life as one of saving her son by eliminating the 'provocative sluts' of the world. There are several attractive young women on the unit. What should the LPN/LVN do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the LPN/LVN to take first is to ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients. This approach is crucial as it helps in monitoring the client's thoughts and behaviors, potentially preventing any harmful actions towards others on the unit. Asking for the client's definition of 'provocative sluts' (Choice A) may not address the immediate concern of monitoring the client's harmful thoughts. Asking the young female clients to dress less provocatively (Choice B) is inappropriate and victim-blaming. Asking the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session (Choice C) may not be effective in addressing the potential harm the client's thoughts could pose to others on the unit.
An elderly client was prescribed Ativan 1 mg three times a day to help calm her anxiety after her husband's death. The next day the client calls her daughter asking when she is picking her up to go to the graveside. The client says she has been walking up and down the driveway for the past hour waiting for her daughter. Noting the client's agitation, hyperactivity, and insistence, the daughter calls the nurse to report her mother's behavior. What should the nurse suspect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A paradoxical reaction to Ativan, where the drug causes opposite effects such as increased agitation and hyperactivity, should prompt immediate cessation of the medication. In this scenario, the client was prescribed Ativan to help calm her anxiety, but instead, she is displaying symptoms of increased agitation and hyperactivity, indicating a paradoxical reaction. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms described do not align with mania. Choice B is incorrect as there is no mention of a medication interaction. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of a paradoxical reaction rather than overwhelming grief.
A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The RN also determines that the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. The client's plan of care should include what priority problem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acute confusion is the priority problem as it directly affects the client's ability to process information and make safe decisions. In this scenario, the client's disorientation, disorganization, and confusion indicate an immediate cognitive issue that requires attention to ensure her safety and stability. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority problems in this case. Ineffective community coping, disturbed sensory perception, and self-care deficit, while important, are secondary to the client's acute confusion, which poses an immediate risk to her well-being.
A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Which side effect should the nurse educate the client about?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of SSRIs. While hypertension (A) can occur with other medications, it is not typically associated with SSRIs. Increased appetite (C) and weight gain (D) are potential side effects of some antidepressants, but sexual dysfunction is more specific to SSRIs. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client about the risk of sexual dysfunction when taking an SSRI.
A woman arrives in the Emergency Center and tells the nurse she thinks she has been raped. The client is sobbing and expresses disbelief that a rape could happen because the man is her best friend. After acknowledging the client's fear and anxiety, how should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A victim of date rape or acquaintance rape is less prone to recognize what is happening because the incident usually involves persons who know each other and the dynamics are different than rape by a stranger. Choice (C) provides confrontation for the client's denial because the victim frequently knows and trusts the perpetrator. Nurses should not express personal feelings (Choice A) when dealing with victims. Choice B, suggesting that the client led on the rapist, indicates that the sexual assault was somehow the victim's fault. Choice D is judgmental and does not display compassion or establish trust between the nurse and the client.
The nurse observes a client who is admitted to the mental health unit and identifies that the client is talking continuously, using words that rhyme but that have no context or relationship with one topic to the next in the conversation. This client's behavior and thought processes are consistent with which syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client is demonstrating symptoms of schizophrenia, such as disorganized speech that may include word salad (a type of communication that mixes real and imaginary words in no logical order), incoherent speech, and clanging (rhyming). Dementia (Choice A) is characterized by memory loss and cognitive decline, not by disorganized speech. Depression (Choice B) typically presents with persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest, not disorganized speech. Chronic brain syndrome (Choice D) is a vague term and does not specifically describe the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.
Which action should the nurse implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to prepare the environment to prevent self-injury. Clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal are at risk of seizures and other symptoms that may lead to self-harm. By ensuring a safe environment, the nurse can mitigate the risk of injury. Applying restraints (Choice A) should only be considered if less restrictive measures fail, as restraints can agitate the client further. Giving an alpha-adrenergic blocker (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan for alcohol withdrawal but is not the first action to take. Providing a diet high in protein and calories (Choice C) is important for overall health but is not the priority when addressing immediate safety concerns.
A 30-year-old sales manager tells the nurse, 'I am thinking about a job change. I don't feel like I am living up to my potential.' Which of Maslow's developmental stages is the sales manager attempting to achieve?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Self-Actualization. Self-actualization is the highest level of Maslow's development stages, characterized by the desire to fulfill one's full potential and achieve personal growth. In this scenario, the sales manager's statement indicates a need for personal fulfillment and reaching his highest aspirations, aligning with the concept of self-actualization. Choice B, Loving and Belonging, refers to the need for social relationships and support systems. Choice C, Basic Needs, represents the foundation level of Maslow's hierarchy, encompassing physiological needs like food and shelter. Choice D, Safety and Security, pertains to the need for physical and emotional safety.
The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has been prescribed lithium carbonate. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important instruction for a client prescribed lithium carbonate is not to change their salt intake. Alterations in sodium levels can impact lithium levels, leading to an increased risk of toxicity. Choice A is not crucial for lithium carbonate administration. While hydration is essential, maintaining a consistent salt intake is more critical than just increasing water intake (Choice C). Although caffeine can interact with lithium, it is not as important as maintaining a consistent salt intake (Choice D).
A client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on medication is being discharged from the hospital. What discharge teaching is most important for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Reinforcing the importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial for preventing relapse in clients with schizophrenia. Compliance with medication is essential in managing the symptoms and preventing a worsening of the condition. Choice B, recognizing early signs of relapse, is important but secondary to ensuring medication adherence. Choice C, follow-up appointments, is also important but not as critical as medication compliance immediately post-discharge. Choice D, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly linked to preventing relapse in schizophrenia as medication adherence.
A client with panic disorder is prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). What is the most important information for the nurse to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. SSRIs like sertraline may take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to inform the client to be patient with the treatment. Choice A is not the most crucial information regarding sertraline. Choice C is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is important but not as crucial as informing about the delayed onset of action.
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours checking and rechecking the locks on the doors. What is the best nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best nursing intervention for a client with OCD who spends excessive time checking locks is to encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior. By exploring the underlying anxiety and triggers, the client can gain insight and work towards behavior modification. Choice A is incorrect because enabling the behavior does not address the underlying issues. Choice C is incorrect as it may lead to increased anxiety and distress. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the root cause of the behavior.
A male client is admitted to a mental health unit on Friday afternoon and is very upset on Sunday because he has not had the opportunity to talk with the healthcare provider. Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is best for the nurse to call the healthcare provider (A) because clients have the right to information about their treatment. Suggesting that the healthcare provider will be available the following day (B) does not provide immediate reassurance to the client. While offering to help answer questions (C) and inquiring about concerns (D) are supportive approaches, contacting the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action to address the client's immediate need for communication with their healthcare provider.
At a support meeting of parents of a teenager with polysubstance dependency, a parent states, 'Each time my son tries to quit taking drugs, he gets so depressed that I'm afraid he will commit suicide.' The nurse's response should be based on which information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority is to teach the parents that their son will need monitoring and support during withdrawal to ensure that he does not attempt suicide. Option A is incorrect because addiction can be managed and treated effectively with appropriate interventions. Option B is incorrect as tolerance to drugs causing depression is not the primary concern in this scenario. Option C is incorrect as while depression can be a risk factor for drug abuse, in this case, the focus is on the son's safety during withdrawal.
A male client with alcohol dependence is admitted for detoxification. The nurse knows that which assessment finding is indicative of alcohol withdrawal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tremors are a common sign of alcohol withdrawal. The central nervous system becomes hyperexcitable due to the suppression caused by chronic alcohol intake. Tremors are a manifestation of this hyperexcitability and are a key indicator of alcohol withdrawal. Bradycardia and hypotension are more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration rather than alcohol withdrawal. Hyperglycemia is not a typical finding in alcohol withdrawal; instead, hypoglycemia is more commonly seen due to the effects of alcohol on glucose metabolism.
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to encourage the client to focus on reality-based activities. This intervention helps redirect their attention away from hallucinations, promoting engagement with the environment. Choice B is incorrect as telling the client that the voices are not real may invalidate their experiences and worsen the therapeutic relationship. Choice C may increase the client's distress by focusing on the hallucinations. Choice D might not be helpful as interacting with others who are not experiencing hallucinations may not address the client's current needs.
A 52-year-old male client in the intensive care unit who has been oriented suddenly becomes disoriented and fearful. Assessment of vital signs and other physical parameters reveal no significant change, and the nurse formulates the diagnosis, 'Confusion related to ICU psychosis.' Which intervention would be best to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In critical care environments, stressors can lead to isolation and confusion. Providing the client with scheduled rest periods (C) can help alleviate these symptoms. Moving all machines away (A) is impractical as they are often essential. Explaining the condition (B) may not be effective during acute confusion. Extending visitation times (D) can be overwhelming for the client in the ICU.
Over a period of several weeks, one male participant of a socialization group at a community day care center for the elderly monopolizes most of the group's time and interrupts others when they are talking. What is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Allowing the group to handle the situation is the best action as it promotes group dynamics and empowerment, especially since the group is in the working phase. Talking to the participant individually (A) might be seen as manipulative. Reminding the participant (B) can come across as dictatorial and may not address the underlying issue. Asking the participant to join another group (D) does not address the problem at hand and avoids the opportunity for growth and conflict resolution within the current group.
A female client with depression attends group and states that she sometimes misses her medication appointments because she feels very anxious about riding the bus. Which statement is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best response is to explore ways for the client to cope with anxiety (D). The nurse should encourage problem-solving rather than dependence on the case manager (A) for transportation. While taking medication for anxiety before riding the bus may be helpful, addressing coping strategies should come first (B). Although discussing the feelings of anxiety can be therapeutic (C), the most appropriate approach is to engage the client in finding ways to manage her anxiety effectively.
A male client who is participating in an anger management assignment asks if he can make a leather belt in occupational therapy. The client begins pounding the leather vigorously with a mallet to imprint designs on the belt. What defense mechanism is the client using?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Sublimation. Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities, such as art or work. In this scenario, the client is channeling his anger into a creative and constructive task like making a leather belt. Choice B, Suppression, involves consciously pushing down or hiding feelings rather than expressing them through alternate means. Choice C, Regression, refers to reverting to earlier, immature behaviors when faced with stress. Choice D, Compensation, involves making up for a perceived weakness in one area by excelling in another, which is not demonstrated in the scenario provided.
A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Teaching the client that the medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective is crucial as it helps set realistic expectations. While choice A is important to reduce nausea, it is not the most critical information to provide initially. Choice B is incorrect as improvement usually occurs after several weeks of treatment, not within 1 to 2 weeks. Choice D is also relevant, but informing about the full effectiveness of the medication is more important for long-term adherence.
A 45-year-old male client tells the nurse that he used to believe that he was Jesus Christ, but now he knows he is not. Which response is best for the nurse to make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C is the best response because it validates the client's experience by acknowledging that others have had similar thoughts when under stress. This response helps normalize the client's past experiences without judgment, fostering a supportive and empathetic environment. Choices A and D may come off as judgmental or confrontational, potentially making the client feel misunderstood or defensive. Choice B, 'I think you're getting well,' does not address the client's past belief or provide the understanding and validation that Choice C offers.
The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important nursing problem is medication management (C) because compliance with the medication regimen will help prevent hospitalization. The client is also exhibiting signs of mania, such as excessive work activity (A), decreased need for sleep (B), and inflated self-esteem (D); however, these problems do not have the priority of medication management. Managing the medications is crucial to stabilize the client's condition and prevent potential harm associated with untreated bipolar disorder.
The nurse is admitting a male client who takes lithium carbonate (Eskalith) twice a day. Which information should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nausea and vomiting should be reported immediately because they could indicate lithium toxicity, which requires urgent medical attention to prevent more severe effects. Short-term memory loss, depressed affect, and weight gain are common side effects of lithium but do not require immediate medical attention compared to symptoms of toxicity like nausea and vomiting.
A 38-year-old female client is admitted with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. When her tray is brought to her, she refuses to eat and tells the nurse, 'I know you are trying to poison me with that food.' Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice (A) offers support without confrontation, allowing the client to feel safe and respected. Choices (B) and (C) directly challenge the client's delusion, which can increase anxiety and distrust. Choice (D) focuses on a non-essential issue and does not address the client's immediate emotional needs.
A client in a long-term care facility who has multiple sclerosis is embarrassed about the need to use a wheelchair and the muscle spasms that are readily visible in her legs. Which approach is therapeutic in assisting the client to cope?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging and praising the client's perseverance in performing activities of daily living (ADLs) is therapeutic as it helps the client maintain a sense of normalcy and dignity, thus supporting their psychosocial well-being. This approach acknowledges the client's struggles while empowering them to maintain their independence and self-care. Choices A and C are incorrect as they do not address the client's emotional needs and may contribute to further isolation and distress. Choice B, while important, does not specifically address the client's feelings of embarrassment and the need for emotional support.
The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.
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