HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Kidney function tests
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Blood glucose levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: White blood cell count. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial to detect this condition early. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver and kidney function tests are important in monitoring other aspects of health, the most critical concern with clozapine therapy is the risk of agranulocytosis, making monitoring white blood cell count the priority.
2. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and sits in the corner of the day room. When the nurse begins the admission assessment interview, the client is guarded, suspicious, and resists talking. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Attempt to ask the client simple questions.
- B. Postpone the client interview until the next day.
- C. Ask another nurse to talk with the client.
- D. Document the client's paranoid behavior.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is guarded, suspicious, and resistant to talking, it is important for the nurse to attempt to ask the client simple questions. Simple questions can help build rapport, establish trust, and create a non-threatening environment. This approach may ease the client into more detailed discussions while reducing feelings of suspicion. Postponing the interview may increase the client's anxiety and distrust, while asking another nurse to talk with the client may disrupt continuity of care and the establishment of a therapeutic relationship. Documenting the client's behavior is important for the client's medical record, but it should not be the first action taken in this situation.
3. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
- B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
- C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
- D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.
4. A client, who is on a 30-day commitment to a drug rehabilitation unit, asks the nurse if he can go for a walk on the grounds of the treatment center. When he is told that his privileges do not include walking on the grounds, the client becomes verbally abusive. Which approach will the nurse take?
- A. Call a staff member to escort the client to his room.
- B. Tell the client to talk to his healthcare provider about his privileges.
- C. Remind the client of the unit rules.
- D. Ignore the client's inappropriate behavior.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: (C) is the correct approach in this situation as it reinforces unit rules, setting clear boundaries and expectations. By reminding the client of the unit rules, the nurse is helping to maintain a safe and structured environment within the drug rehabilitation unit. (A) is unnecessary since the client's behavior does not warrant immediate physical intervention. (B) is not ideal because the client's privileges have already been explained, and suggesting he speak to his healthcare provider may not address the immediate issue. (D) is not appropriate as addressing inappropriate behavior is essential in a therapeutic setting.
5. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this family member?
- A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
- B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
- C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
- D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide to the wife of the client diagnosed with schizophrenia is to offer factual information. Choice B is the correct answer as it explains that schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking. This response provides a simple and accurate explanation of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the wife's question about what schizophrenia is. Choice A focuses on emotional support rather than providing information about the disorder. Choice C gives false reassurance without addressing the nature of schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the question by suggesting the wife speak to the psychologist, missing an opportunity to educate and support the family member.
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