Free HESI LPN Fundamentals of Nursing practice for Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam (HESI LPN). Answer 91 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode
A client is being taught how to administer ear drops. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Gently applying pressure to the front part of the ear after administering drops helps with absorption. Pulling the ear down and back is a correct technique for adults. Snugly inserting the nozzle of the ear drop bottle or placing a cotton ball all the way into the ear canal is unnecessary and can potentially cause harm or discomfort. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
Which toy is most appropriate for an 18-month-old child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A pull toy is the most appropriate choice for an 18-month-old child. At this age, children are developing their motor skills and coordination, and a pull toy can help with these aspects by encouraging movement and coordination. Puzzle with large pieces (Choice B) may pose a choking hazard for a child of this age due to small parts. While a book with large pictures (Choice C) can be engaging and beneficial for language development, a pull toy is more suitable for promoting physical development in an 18-month-old. A doll with small clothes (Choice D) is not ideal for this age group as small parts can be a choking hazard.
A client who is postoperative has paralytic ileus. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Paralytic ileus is a condition where there is a temporary paralysis of the bowel, leading to absent bowel sounds and abdominal distention. This occurs because the bowel is not functioning properly to propel contents, resulting in a lack of bowel sounds. Absent bowel sounds with distention are typical findings in paralytic ileus. Hyperactive bowel sounds with pain are more indicative of increased motility and are not expected in paralytic ileus. Normal bowel sounds with cramping may be seen in other conditions, such as gastroenteritis. Diminished bowel sounds with tenderness are not typical findings in paralytic ileus.
A client who has a terminal illness asks several questions about the nurse's religious beliefs related to death and dying. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to express their thoughts allows them to explore their own feelings and concerns about death. This approach empowers the client to reflect on their beliefs and values without the influence of the nurse's personal beliefs (choice B), which should remain separate in a professional setting. Redirecting the client to a chaplain or spiritual advisor (choice C) may be appropriate if the client seeks specific spiritual guidance. Providing a brief overview of common religious beliefs (choice D) may not address the client's individual questions and concerns.
When planning home care for a 72-year-old client with osteomyelitis requiring a 6-week course of intravenous antibiotics, what is the most important action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client's ability to participate in self-care or evaluating the reliability of a caregiver is crucial in ensuring adherence to the treatment plan. This action helps determine if the client can manage the intravenous antibiotics at home independently or if assistance is needed. Investigating insurance coverage, ensuring hand washing facilities, and selecting the venous access device are important aspects of care but assessing the client's ability for self-care and caregiver reliability takes precedence to promote treatment success and safety.
A client has an order for 1000 ml of D5W over an 8-hour period. The nurse discovers that 800 ml has been infused after 4 hours. What is the priority nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Auscultate the lungs. When a significant amount of fluid has been infused, especially in a short period, it is crucial to assess for signs of fluid overload or pulmonary complications, such as crackles or decreased breath sounds. This can be achieved by auscultating the lungs. Choice A, asking the client about breathing problems, may provide valuable information, but direct assessment through auscultation takes priority. Choice B, having the client void, and Choice C, checking vital signs, are important nursing actions but are not as urgent as assessing the lungs for potential complications in this scenario.
Before digital removal of a fecal impaction, which type of enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An oil retention enema containing mineral oil is the most suitable choice to help soften and loosen a fecal impaction before digital removal. Mineral oil lubricates and softens the stool, facilitating passage. Saline enemas draw water into the colon to promote bowel movements but may not effectively soften a fecal impaction. Soapy water enemas are primarily for cleansing, not softening stool. Hypertonic enemas eliminate fluid from the body and are not appropriate for loosening fecal impactions.
When providing oral care to an unconscious patient, what action should the nurse take to protect the patient from injury?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for an unconscious patient, it is crucial to prevent choking and aspiration. Suctioning the oral cavity helps in removing secretions and preventing potential harm. Moisten the mouth using lemon-glycerin sponges may not effectively clear secretions. Holding the patient's mouth open with gloved fingers can cause discomfort and potential harm. Using foam swabs to remove plaque may not address the immediate risk of aspiration.
During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.
A nurse is discussing the care of a group of clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following clients should the newly licensed nurse identify as experiencing chronic pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chronic pain is typically defined as pain lasting longer than 3-6 months or persisting after the expected time for tissue healing. Episodic back pain following a fall 2 years ago fits the criteria for chronic pain. Option A describes acute pain related to a recent fracture. Option B describes acute postoperative pain. Option C describes acute pain associated with an acute condition (food poisoning). Therefore, the correct identification of a client experiencing chronic pain is the one with episodic back pain from a past injury, as it has lasted beyond the normal healing time.
When changing a client's colostomy pouch and noticing peristomal skin irritation, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a nurse observes peristomal skin irritation while changing a client's colostomy pouch, it is crucial to ensure that the pouch is slightly larger (0.32 cm or 1/8 inch) than the stoma. This extra space helps prevent the pouch from rubbing against the stoma and causing further irritation. Option A is correct because colostomy pouches should be changed based on individual needs, not necessarily every 24 hours. Option B is incorrect because applying the pouch only when the skin barrier is completely dry ensures better adhesion. Option C is incorrect as patting the peristomal skin dry after cleaning is more gentle and less likely to cause irritation compared to rubbing.
When providing a bath, in which order will the nurse clean the body, beginning with the first area?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct sequence for giving a bath starts with cleaning the eyes, followed by the face, both arms, chest, hands/nails, abdomen, both legs, perineal hygiene, back, and finally the buttocks/anus. Therefore, the first area to be cleaned during a bath is the eyes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as per the standard procedure for providing a bath.
A patient has scaling of the scalp. Which term will the nurse use to report this finding to the oncoming staff?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct term the nurse will use to report scaling of the scalp is 'Dandruff.' Dandruff is characterized by scaling of the scalp that is often accompanied by itching. Choice B, 'Alopecia,' refers to hair loss, not scaling. Choice C, 'Pediculosis,' is the infestation of lice, not scaling. Choice D, 'Xerostomia,' pertains to dry mouth, which is unrelated to the described symptom of scaling of the scalp.
A client who had a stroke requires assistance with morning ADLs. Which of the following interprofessional team members should the nurse consult?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in assisting clients with daily living activities, making them crucial for a stroke patient requiring help with morning activities of daily living (ADLs). While a registered dietitian (A) may provide nutritional guidance, a speech-language pathologist (C) focuses on communication and swallowing disorders, and a physical therapist (D) primarily deals with mobility and physical rehabilitation. However, none of these professionals directly address the specific needs related to ADLs following a stroke as effectively as an occupational therapist.
An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.
A client who had a cerebrovascular accident has persistent problems with dysphagia. The nurse caring for the client should initiate a referral with which of the following members of the interprofessional care team?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Speech-language pathologist. Speech-language pathologists specialize in assessing and treating dysphagia, which is a common issue following a cerebrovascular accident. They are trained to evaluate swallowing function and provide appropriate interventions to help clients improve their ability to swallow safely. Choice A, Social worker, is incorrect as their role does not typically involve addressing dysphagia specifically. Choice B, Certified nursing assistant, is not the appropriate professional to address dysphagia concerns as they do not have the training or scope of practice for this specialized area. Choice C, Occupational therapist, focuses more on activities of daily living and functional abilities rather than the specialized treatment of dysphagia.
A client is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Take your pulse daily before taking this medication.' It is essential for clients taking digoxin to monitor their pulse daily to detect bradycardia, a potential side effect. Choice B is incorrect because clients should never take an extra dose if a dose is missed; they should take the missed dose as soon as remembered unless it is close to the time for the next dose. Choice C is incorrect because digoxin is preferably taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because digoxin itself can cause low potassium levels, so avoiding potassium-rich foods is not necessary.
When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.
While being educated by a nurse, an assistive personnel (AP) is learning about proper hand hygiene. Which statement made by the AP indicates a good understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C is the correct answer because it demonstrates an understanding that soap and water should be used when hands are visibly dirty or when dealing with specific pathogens. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests the use of soap and water over alcohol-based hand rub without specifying the circumstances. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that using alcohol-based hand rub after using the restroom is always suitable. Choice D is incorrect because it states that hand rub is always enough, which is not true when hands are visibly soiled or when specific pathogens are present.
A middle adult client tells the nurse, 'I feel so useless now that my children do not need me anymore.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is A. Middle adulthood is a stage where individuals often experience generativity, finding fulfillment in guiding and nurturing others. By acknowledging this aspect, the nurse can help the client explore opportunities to engage in activities that provide a sense of purpose and satisfaction. Choice A validates the client's feelings and offers a constructive way to address them. Choices B, C, and D do not address the client's emotional need for purpose and may not encourage the client to seek meaningful ways to address their feelings of uselessness.
When assessing a patient's feet, the nurse notices that the toenails are thick and separated from the nail bed. What does the nurse most likely suspect is the cause of this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse would most likely suspect fungi as the cause of thickened and separated toenails. Fungal infections can lead to changes in the nail structure, causing them to thicken and separate from the nail bed. Friction, nail polish, and nail polish remover are less likely to cause these specific nail changes. Friction typically leads to calluses or blisters, while nail polish and nail polish remover do not commonly result in thickened and separated toenails.
During an admission history, a client tells a nurse that she is under a lot of stress. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect to increase as a result of stress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Stress typically increases blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones like cortisol and adrenaline. Elevated blood glucose helps provide energy for the body to cope with the stressful situation. Choice B is incorrect because intestinal peristalsis, the movement of the intestines, is more likely to decrease under stress due to the 'fight or flight' response. Choice C is incorrect as peripheral blood vessels' diameter may vary in response to stress, with both constriction and dilation possible. Choice D is incorrect as urine output may increase or decrease depending on individual differences and the specific stress response, but it is not a typical or direct physiological response to stress.
During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, how should the nurse perform each movement for a patient with impaired mobility?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, the nurse is responsible for moving the patient's joints through their range of motion. The correct technique involves performing movements slowly and smoothly, only going to the point of resistance without causing pain. This technique helps maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. Choice A is the correct answer as it reflects the appropriate technique for passive ROM exercises. Choices B and C are incorrect because the patient is not actively participating, and ROM exercises should not cause pain. Choice D is incorrect as movements should be done deliberately and not quickly.
The nurse is discharging an adult woman who was hospitalized for 6 days for treatment of pneumonia. While the nurse is reviewing the prescribed medications, the client appears anxious. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Including a family member in the teaching session is the most important action for the nurse to implement in this scenario. By involving a family member, the nurse can ensure that there is additional support and reinforcement of the medication plan. This can help the client and family better understand and adhere to the prescribed medications, reducing the client's anxiety. Instructing the client to repeat the medication plan (Choice A) may not address the client's anxiety effectively. Encouraging the client to take a PRN antianxiety drug (Choice B) should not be the first intervention without exploring other supportive measures. Providing written instructions (Choice C) alone may not offer the immediate support and reassurance needed for the anxious client.
A client who has been experiencing frequent tonic-clonic seizures is being admitted by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Maintaining the bed in the lowest position is crucial in reducing the risk of injury during tonic-clonic seizures. This action helps prevent falls and minimizes potential harm to the client. Wrapping blankets around all four sides of the bed (Choice A) may restrict movement during a seizure and increase the risk of injury. Placing the client in a padded room (Choice B) is not a practical approach in a healthcare setting and may not be feasible. Ensuring the client has a soft mattress (Choice D) alone does not address the safety concerns during seizures, unlike keeping the bed in the lowest position.
When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.
A client who is malnourished expresses concern about losing their loose wedding ring. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to put the client's wedding ring in a locked storage unit for safekeeping. This ensures that the ring is secure and minimizes the risk of loss or damage. Choices A, B, and C do not provide the same level of security and protection as placing the ring in a locked storage unit. Pinning it to the hospital gown (Choice A) may not be secure and could still lead to loss. Placing it in the client's drawer (Choice B) may not guarantee its safety. Holding onto it until a family member retrieves it (Choice C) leaves the ring vulnerable to misplacement or theft.
A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan to implement when working with the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tuberculosis is an infectious disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of infectious droplets. Airborne precautions involve wearing a mask, such as an N95 respirator, to protect against inhaling infectious particles. Droplet precautions are for diseases spread through respiratory droplets larger than those in airborne transmission, such as influenza. Protective precautions are not specific to respiratory infections and are more general measures to protect patients from harm. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA or C. diff infections, not for tuberculosis.
The healthcare provider is providing oral care to an unconscious patient and notes that the patient has extremely bad breath. Which term will the healthcare provider use when reporting to the oncoming shift?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct term the healthcare provider will use when reporting the extremely bad breath of the unconscious patient to the oncoming shift is 'Halitosis' (Choice B). Halitosis specifically refers to bad breath. Cheilitis (Choice A) is inflammation of the lips, not related to bad breath. Glossitis (Choice C) is inflammation of the tongue, not directly associated with bad breath. Dental caries (Choice D) are cavities in the teeth, which can contribute to bad breath but are not the term used to describe bad breath itself.
A client asks a nurse about the purpose of advance directives.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Advance directives serve to indicate the forms of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or decline in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. This legal document allows individuals to make decisions about their future healthcare. Choice B is incorrect as advance directives do not specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment. Choice C is incorrect as advance directives do not determine the client's daily medication schedule; this is typically addressed in a medication administration record. Choice D is incorrect as advance directives do not outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage, but rather focus on healthcare treatment preferences.
A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.
The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which finding should the nurse expect to observe in this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Weight loss is a common finding in clients with hyperthyroidism due to increased metabolic activity. Hyperthyroidism leads to an overactive thyroid gland, which results in an increased metabolic rate and often leads to weight loss despite a normal or increased appetite. Cold intolerance (Choice B) is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, where the body's processes slow down. Bradycardia (Choice C) is a slow heart rate, which is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism; rather, tachycardia or an increased heart rate is more common. Dry skin (Choice D) is also not a typical finding in hyperthyroidism, as the skin is more likely to be warm and moist due to increased metabolic activity.
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Enoxaparin should be administered with the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper subcutaneous delivery. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the recommended angle for subcutaneous injections. Administering enoxaparin at a 45-degree angle (Choice A), 30-degree angle (Choice C), or 15-degree angle (Choice D) would not be appropriate and may lead to improper administration or absorption of the medication.
A client is being taught how to use an incentive spirometer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Sealing the lips around the mouthpiece is crucial for the proper use of an incentive spirometer as it helps ensure effective delivery of the inhaled medication. Choice A has been corrected to reflect the importance of sealing the lips. Choices B and C are incorrect because using the spirometer as needed throughout the day and inhaling slowly and deeply, although beneficial, do not directly address the essential technique of sealing the lips around the mouthpiece.
During an admission assessment for an older adult client, what is the priority action for the nurse after gathering data and reviewing systems?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority action for the nurse after completing the assessment and review of systems for an older adult client is to orient them to their room. This is crucial for ensuring the client's comfort and safety in the new environment. While reviewing medical prescriptions and developing a plan of care are important aspects of the admission process, they can be done after the client has been oriented to their room.
A healthcare professional is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the healthcare professional:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Refrigeration can kill the ova and parasites present in the stool specimen, leading to inaccurate test results. Storing the specimen in a cold environment can disrupt the integrity of the parasites and ova, affecting the accuracy of the test. Collecting the specimen in a sterile container (Choice B) is the correct procedure to prevent external contamination. Delaying the collection of the specimen (Choice C) may affect the freshness of the sample but does not directly impact the test results. Using a non-contaminated collection container (Choice D) is essential to maintain the sample's integrity but does not relate to the risk of killing ova and parasites through refrigeration.
During a complete bed bath for a client, after removing the gown and placing a bath blanket over the body, which of the following areas should the nurse wash first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When performing a complete bed bath, it is essential to wash the face first. Washing the face initially helps to maintain the client's privacy and comfort. Additionally, starting with the face prevents re-contamination of already cleaned areas. Washing the feet first (Choice B) is not ideal as it can lead to potential contamination of the upper body parts. Starting with the chest (Choice C) or arms (Choice D) is not recommended due to the risk of water dripping onto the client's face, causing discomfort and compromising privacy.
A client with a diagnosis of Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has died. Which type of precautions is the appropriate type to use when performing postmortem care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Contact precautions are necessary when performing postmortem care on a client with MRSA to prevent the spread of infection. Contact precautions involve using barriers like gloves and gowns to limit direct contact with the deceased individual's body fluids and tissues. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that are transmitted through the air, like tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are for pathogens that are transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Compromised host precautions are not a recognized standard precaution type and are not applicable in this scenario.
A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.
The patient has been brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. The patient is unresponsive. The driver's license states that glasses are needed to operate a motor vehicle, but no glasses were brought in with the patient. Which action should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should stand to the side of the patient's eye and observe the cornea. This action is crucial in assessing whether the patient wears contact lenses, especially in unresponsive patients. Observing the cornea can provide valuable information about the patient's eye health and potential use of contact lenses. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Concluding that the glasses were lost during the accident is premature without proper assessment. Notifying ambulance personnel about the missing glasses may not be the immediate priority, and asking the unresponsive patient about the glasses would not yield useful information in this situation.
When transferring a client to a long-term care facility, what information should the nurse include in the handoff report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Effectiveness of the last dose of pain medication.' When transferring a client to a long-term care facility, it is crucial to provide information on the effectiveness of the last dose of pain medication to ensure continuity of care and appropriate pain management. This information helps the receiving facility understand the client's current pain status and plan future interventions accordingly. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant for the handoff report in this scenario. The frequency of previous vital sign measurements may be important, but the immediate effectiveness of pain medication takes precedence. The number of family members who have visited and the time of the client's last bath are not as critical for the receiving facility's immediate care planning compared to pain management details.
A parent asks a nurse about his infant's expected physical development during the first year of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. By 10 months, infants can typically pull up to a standing position as part of their physical development. Walking with assistance usually begins around 9-12 months, not at 6 months (choice B). Jumping with both feet is a skill that usually develops around 24 months, not at 12 months (choice C). Crawling on hands and knees typically starts around 6-9 months, not at 8 months (choice D). Therefore, the most accurate information to include for an infant's expected physical development at 10 months is the ability to pull up to a standing position.
A client will require oxygen therapy at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands how to manage this therapy at home?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Ensuring the oxygen equipment's wires and cables are in good working order is crucial to prevent sparks in an oxygen-rich environment, which could lead to a fire. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because smoking near an oxygen tank, using a cotton blanket near oxygen (as cotton is less likely to generate static electricity than wool), and laying the oxygen tank down on the floor pose significant safety risks and are not appropriate practices for managing oxygen therapy at home.
The nurse is preparing to provide a complete bed bath to an unconscious patient. The nurse decides to use a bag bath. In which order will the nurse clean the body, starting with the first area?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In providing a complete bed bath using a bag bath for an unconscious patient, the nurse should follow a specific order. The correct sequence is as follows: Neck, shoulders, and chest; Both arms, both hands, web spaces, and axilla; Abdomen and then groin/perineum; Right leg, right foot, and web spaces; Left leg, left foot, and web spaces; Back of neck, back, and then buttocks. Choice A is incorrect as it does not follow the correct sequence for a bed bath. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the lower extremities before addressing the upper body. Choice D is incorrect as it starts with the back of the patient instead of the upper body areas first.
While auscultating the anterior chest of a newly admitted patient, what would the nurse expect to hear?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When auscultating the chest, normal breathing sounds are expected in a healthy individual. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound that indicates narrowed airways and is often heard in conditions like asthma. Crackles are fine, crackling sounds heard on inspiration or expiration and are associated with conditions like pneumonia or heart failure. Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh sound heard during inspiration due to upper airway obstruction. Therefore, choices B, C, and D indicate abnormal respiratory findings, while choice A signifies normal breathing sounds.
During the stages of dying, a client reaches the point of acceptance. What response should the LPN/LVN expect the client to exhibit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the stages of dying, when a client reaches the point of acceptance, the expected response is 'Detachment.' This is characterized by the individual withdrawing emotionally and psychologically from their surroundings as they come to terms with their impending death. Apathy (Choice A) refers to a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern, which is not typically associated with the acceptance stage. Euphoria (Choice B) is an intense feeling of happiness or excitement, which is less likely during the acceptance stage of dying. Emotionalism (Choice D) involves exaggerated or uncontrollable emotional reactions, which are not commonly seen during the acceptance phase.
A healthcare provider is receiving a prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare provider clarify?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at high risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids. Therefore, the healthcare provider should clarify the prescription for clear liquids and consider recommending thickened liquids instead to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice A, 'Dietitian consult,' is essential to ensure the client receives appropriate nutrition tailored to their condition. Choice B, 'Speech therapy referral,' is crucial for dysphagia management and rehabilitation. Choice C, 'Oral suction at the bedside,' is a standard intervention to maintain airway patency and is not contraindicated in clients with dysphagia.
A male Native American presents to the clinic with complaints of frequent abdominal cramping and nausea. He states that he has chronic constipation and had not had a bowel movement in five days, despite trying several home remedies. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing for impaction is crucial as it is a common cause of constipation and abdominal discomfort. In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of chronic constipation and no bowel movement for five days despite trying home remedies indicate a potential impaction that needs to be assessed. Evaluating stool samples for blood, determining the home remedies used, or obtaining a list of prescribed medications, while potentially relevant, are not as urgent as assessing for impaction in this situation.
The healthcare provider is providing postoperative care to a client who had a submucosal resection (SMR) for a deviated septum. The healthcare provider should monitor for what complication associated with this type of surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Expectoration of blood is a potential complication following SMR surgery, as it may indicate bleeding postoperatively. In contrast, occipital headache (choice A) is not a common complication associated with SMR surgery. Periorbital crepitus (choice B) is more related to facial fractures or certain infections rather than SMR surgery. Changes in vocalization (choice D) are not typically associated with complications following SMR surgery.
A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication prescription, which reads, 'digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.' Which of the following components of the prescription should the healthcare professional question?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The healthcare professional should question the dose indicated in the prescription. In this case, '0.25' is incomplete without a unit of measurement, such as mg (milligrams). Without a specified unit, the dose lacks the necessary information for accurate administration. Choices A, B, and D are not incorrect components to question in medication prescriptions; however, in this scenario, the incompleteness of the dose is the most critical concern that needs clarification to ensure safe and effective medication administration.
A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is being taught how to administer insulin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction the nurse should include is to rotate injection sites within the same body area. This practice helps prevent lipodystrophy, a condition characterized by the thickening or thinning of subcutaneous fat at the injection sites, which can affect insulin absorption. Choice A is incorrect because administering insulin in the same area each time can lead to lipodystrophy. Choice B is incorrect as insulin should be stored according to the manufacturer's instructions, which may include refrigeration. Choice D is incorrect because the angle of insulin injection (usually 90 degrees) is determined by the length of the needle and the amount of subcutaneous fat, not a fixed 45-degree angle.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is dividing care for four clients. The nurse should identify which of the following situations as an ethical dilemma?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because an ethical dilemma involves conflicting moral principles. In this scenario, the family's request not to disclose the terminal diagnosis to the client raises the moral question of truth-telling and patient autonomy. Choice A does not present an ethical dilemma but rather a challenge in client compliance. Choice B involves professional responsibility and accountability, not an ethical dilemma. Choice D relates to financial concerns and insurance coverage, which do not constitute an ethical dilemma but rather a financial issue.
A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take when administering multiple medications to a client with an enteral feeding tube is to flush the tube with 15-30 mL of sterile water before and between medications, and 30-60 mL after the last medication. This helps prevent clogging and ensures each medication is delivered effectively. Choice A is incorrect as medications should not be dissolved in water for administration through an enteral feeding tube. Choice B is incorrect because each medication should be drawn up and administered separately to prevent any potential interactions. Choice C is incorrect as resistance while pushing the plunger may indicate a problem that needs to be addressed before continuing with the administration.
The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has multiple ticks on lower legs and body. What should the healthcare provider do to rid the patient of ticks?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct answer: When removing ticks, it is essential to use blunt tweezers to grasp the tick as close to the head as possible and pull upward with even, steady pressure to remove the entire tick. Option B is incorrect because burning ticks can increase the risk of infection and is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as waiting for ticks to drop off by themselves prolongs potential exposure to tick-borne diseases. Option D is incorrect as miconazole is an antifungal medication and not used for tick removal.
A nurse is caring for a client who reports a pain level of 5 on a scale from 0-10. The client informs the nurse that pain medication is not an option for managing pain. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client has expressed that pain medication is not an option for managing pain. Offering alternative pain relief options like a back massage is appropriate because it respects the client's preferences and provides a non-pharmacological intervention to help alleviate pain. Choices A, B, and C are not as suitable: A may come across as dismissive of the client's decision, B may not be safe as herbal remedies can interact with medical treatments, and C focuses more on questioning the client's decision rather than providing immediate comfort.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV fluids to a client. The professional notes sparks when plugging in the IV pump. Which of the following actions should the professional take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Unplugging the pump is the correct initial action in this situation to prevent any potential fire hazards. Sparks when plugging in the IV pump indicate an electrical issue that can lead to a fire. By immediately unplugging the pump, the healthcare professional ensures the safety of the client and prevents any further risks. Labeling the pump with a defective equipment sticker (Choice A) is not the priority as the immediate concern is safety. Obtaining a replacement pump (Choice C) can be considered after addressing the safety issue. Notifying the maintenance department (Choice D) is important but should follow the immediate action of unplugging the pump to mitigate the risk.
A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septicemia. Which assessment finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with septicemia, decreased blood pressure is a critical finding that suggests potential septic shock, a life-threatening condition. Septic shock requires immediate medical intervention to prevent further deterioration and organ dysfunction. Increased urine output (Choice A) may indicate adequate fluid resuscitation, which is a positive response. Increased heart rate (Choice C) and increased respiratory rate (Choice D) are common physiological responses to sepsis and do not necessarily indicate immediate life-threatening complications like decreased blood pressure does in septic shock.
A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Seclusion should only be used when necessary and with proper documentation; otherwise, it may be considered unlawful. Placing a client in seclusion without a clear indication or proper documentation could lead to legal ramifications, making choice A the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect because assault and battery do not apply in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as there is no mention of the client posing an imminent threat due to a history of violence. Choice D is incorrect as seclusion should not be used solely to maintain the therapeutic milieu but rather for the safety of the client and others.
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.
When applying an ice bag to a client's ankle following a sports injury, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Filling the ice bag two-thirds full is the correct action as it ensures the effectiveness of the ice application while allowing some space for the ice to move and conform to the injury. Choice B is incorrect because the ice bag should be applied with a barrier like a cloth to prevent direct contact with the skin, which can lead to ice burns. Choice C is wrong as ice should typically be applied for 20 minutes at a time to avoid tissue damage. Choice D is also incorrect as ice is preferred over frozen gel packs for immediate sports injury management.
A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.
Which serum blood finding in diabetic ketoacidosis alerts the nurse that immediate action is required?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A hematocrit (HCT) of 60 indicates severe dehydration, a critical condition in diabetic ketoacidosis that requires immediate intervention. Severe dehydration can lead to hypovolemic shock and organ failure. While a low pH below 7.3 is indicative of acidosis, it may not require immediate action compared to severe dehydration. A potassium level of 5.0 is within the normal range and not a critical finding in this scenario. PaO2 of 79% reflects oxygenation status, which is important but not the most critical finding requiring immediate action in diabetic ketoacidosis.
The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the LPN/LVN administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To administer 4 mg of morphine, as prescribed, the LPN/LVN needs to calculate the correct volume based on the concentration provided (8 mg per ml). Since the desired dose is 4 mg, half of 8 mg (0.5 ml) is required to administer the correct amount. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they would either underdose or overdose the patient.
During a blood transfusion, which observation indicates that the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Complaints of back pain and shortness of breath are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a hemolytic reaction. This reaction can lead to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing back pain and shortness of breath due to clot formation in the blood vessels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery. Warmth, flushing, rash, chills, and fever are more commonly associated with allergic reactions or febrile non-hemolytic reactions during transfusions. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect in this context.
A healthcare provider is preparing to provide hygiene care. Which principle should the provider consider when planning hygiene care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'No two individuals perform hygiene in the same manner.' It is crucial to individualize a patient's care based on understanding the patient's unique hygiene practices and preferences. Choice A is incorrect because hygiene care should be tailored to the individual's needs and preferences, not seen as routine and expected for everyone. Choice C is incorrect as standardizing a patient's hygienic practices may not address their specific needs. Choice D is incorrect because understanding patient needs is essential during hygiene care to provide personalized and effective care.
While being prepared for transport to the operating room, a client scheduled for hysterectomy informs the nurse that she no longer wants to have surgery. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the provider about the client's decision. By informing the provider, they can discuss the client's change in decision, explore the reasons behind it, and determine the appropriate course of action. Proceeding with the transport (Choice B) without addressing the client's concerns would not respect the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Preparing the surgical site (Choice C) would be premature and inappropriate if the client no longer wishes to proceed with the surgery. While documenting the client's statement (Choice D) is important for documentation purposes, the immediate priority is to involve the provider in the decision-making process.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is reporting pain despite taking analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to determine the intensity of the client's pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Offering the client a pain scale is the most appropriate action to determine the intensity of the client's pain. Pain scales help quantify the intensity of pain, providing a standardized way to assess and compare pain levels. Asking about precipitating factors (choice A) may help identify triggers but does not directly measure pain intensity. Questioning about the location of pain (choice B) helps with localization but not with quantifying intensity. Using open-ended questions (choice D) may provide insights into the quality and experience of pain but does not provide a standardized measure of intensity.
A charge nurse is talking with a newly licensed nurse and is reviewing nursing interventions that do not require a provider's prescription. Which of the following interventions should the charge nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Showing a client how to use progressive muscle relaxation is an intervention that does not require a provider's prescription. This falls within the nurse's scope of practice and can be implemented to promote relaxation and reduce stress for the client. Choices A and B involve tasks that require a provider's prescription and specialized training. Writing a prescription for morphine sulfate and inserting an NG tube should only be done by authorized healthcare providers. Choice D, performing a daily bath, while within the nurse's scope, does not specifically address interventions that do not require a provider's prescription.
A client with heart failure is being taught by a nurse on reducing daily sodium intake. Which factor is most crucial in determining the client's ability to learn new dietary habits?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's previous dietary knowledge is the most critical factor in determining the ability to learn new dietary habits. Understanding the client's existing dietary knowledge helps tailor the teaching to build upon what they already know. While client involvement in planning changes can increase adherence and motivation, the foundational knowledge is essential for effective learning. The cost of dietary changes and the availability of low-sodium foods are important considerations but not as crucial as the client's existing knowledge.
A client with a chest tube following thoracic surgery needs care. Which task should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because assisting the client with food choices is a task that can be safely delegated to assistive personnel. This task does not require nursing judgment or specialized skills. Choices A, C, and D involve assessing the client's condition, response to treatment, and monitoring critical aspects of care, which are nursing responsibilities that necessitate specialized knowledge and judgment. Teaching deep breathing and coughing (A), evaluating pain medication response (C), and monitoring chest tube drainage (D) require a higher level of training and expertise that should be performed by the nurse.
A nurse is evaluating teaching about nutrition with the guardians of an 11-year-old child. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Rewarding school achievements with a point system rather than food items like pizza or ice cream is a healthier approach. This choice indicates an understanding of the teaching about nutrition and the importance of not using food as a reward. Choices A, B, and C do not demonstrate a clear understanding of the teaching as they focus on concerns about overeating, skipping meals, and limiting fast-food consumption but do not address the concept of avoiding food rewards for achievements.
During new employee orientation, a nurse is explaining how to prevent IV infections. Which of the following statements by an orientee indicates understanding of the preventive strategies?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: "I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion." This statement demonstrates an understanding of preventive strategies for IV infections. Suspecting and replacing any contaminated IV catheter during insertion is crucial to prevent infections and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leaving the IV catheter in place after completing antibiotics, reusing the same IV catheter, and disconnecting the IV infusion without proper precautions can increase the risk of infections. Therefore, option D is the best choice for preventing IV infections.
A client who is postoperative is using an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct position for a postoperative client using an incentive spirometer is the Semi-Fowler's position. Placing the client in Semi-Fowler's or high-Fowler's position maximizes lung expansion and the effectiveness of the incentive spirometer. Side-lying may not provide optimal lung expansion. The supine position is not ideal for postoperative clients using incentive spirometers as it may limit lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential complications postoperatively.
A nurse on the IV team is conducting an in-service education program about the complications of IV therapy. Which of the following statements by an attendee indicates an understanding of the manifestations of infiltration? (Select all that apply.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement is: 'The temperature around the IV site is cooler.' Cooler temperature around the site is indicative of infiltration, where IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing tissue swelling. The other options are incorrect: B) An increase in infusion rate is not a sign of infiltration; instead, it could indicate an issue with the infusion pump or the IV catheter. C) Redness around the IV site is more indicative of infection rather than infiltration. D) A damp IV dressing is more suggestive of a leak in the IV system, not infiltration.
When planning interventions for a group of clients who are obese, what can the nurse do to improve their commitment to a long-term goal of weight loss?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To improve clients' commitment to a long-term goal of weight loss, attempting to develop their self-motivation is crucial. Self-motivation is essential for sustaining behavior changes over time. Providing a strict diet plan (choice A) may not address the root motivation needed for long-term success. While rewards (choice C) can be motivating, relying solely on external rewards may not foster the intrinsic motivation required for sustained weight loss. Encouraging group exercise (choice D) is beneficial, but without addressing individual motivation, it may not lead to long-term commitment to weight loss goals.
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. Black, tarry stools can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication that requires urgent medical evaluation and intervention. This finding should not be dismissed or considered normal without further assessment. Option A is incorrect because black, tarry stools are not a normal finding and may signify a significant health issue. Option C is incorrect as immediate action is needed rather than just documenting the finding. Option D is not the best choice as it simply suggests seeking medical attention without emphasizing the urgency of the situation. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management of potential gastrointestinal bleeding.
A healthcare professional is instructing an AP about caring for a client who has a low platelet count. Which of the following instructions is the priority for measuring vital signs for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to avoid measuring the client's temperature rectally. Rectal temperatures can cause bleeding in clients with low platelet counts. It is crucial to avoid invasive methods that could increase the risk of bleeding or discomfort. Choice B, counting the radial pulse, is not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client with low platelet count. Choice C, counting respirations discreetly, is important for accuracy but is not the priority when considering the risk of bleeding. Choice D, letting the client rest before measuring blood pressure, is beneficial but is not the priority in preventing potential harm due to low platelet counts.
A charge nurse is assigning tasks to a nurse and assistive personnel for a group of clients. Which of the following tasks should the charge nurse delegate to the AP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because monitoring the color of a client's urinary output is a task that can be safely delegated to assistive personnel. This task involves basic observation and does not require specialized nursing knowledge or skills. Choice A is incorrect because reporting ABG results to the provider requires interpretation and critical thinking skills typically performed by a nurse. Choice B is incorrect as instructing a client about how to use an incentive spirometer involves educating and assessing the client, which is a nursing responsibility. Choice C is incorrect as administering enteral feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube requires nursing expertise to ensure proper technique and monitoring for complications.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is admitting a client. Which of the following information should the nurse document in the client's record first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When admitting a client to a medical-surgical unit, documenting the admission date and time is crucial as it establishes the timeline for the client's care. This information ensures accurate tracking of interventions and facilitates communication among the healthcare team. While assessment, history of present illness, and plan of care are important components of the admission process, documenting the admission date and time takes priority to establish a baseline for care delivery. Without the admission date and time, the continuity of care and coordination among healthcare providers may be compromised.
The healthcare professional is assessing a client who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention. This finding suggests a potential surgical site issue that needs urgent attention to prevent further complications. Absent bowel sounds, pain level, and a slightly elevated temperature are common post-operative findings that may not necessarily require immediate intervention compared to a saturated abdominal dressing. Absent bowel sounds can be common after surgery due to anesthesia but may resolve with time. Pain and slightly elevated temperature are expected post-operative findings that can be managed with appropriate pain relief and monitoring. However, a saturated abdominal dressing indicates a potential ongoing issue at the surgical site that needs prompt assessment and intervention to prevent complications.
When entering the room of an adult male, the nurse finds that the client is very anxious. Before providing care, what action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Re-assessing the client's situation before providing care is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By re-evaluating the client, the nurse can better understand the cause of the anxiety and tailor the care accordingly. Diverting the client's attention (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue causing anxiety. Calling for additional help (Choice B) is not the initial step required unless there is an urgent need. Documenting the planned action (Choice C) should come after reassessing the client to ensure accuracy and relevance.
A healthcare professional is measuring vital signs for a client and notices an irregularity in the pulse. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When an irregular pulse is detected, it is essential to count the apical pulse rate for a full minute to accurately determine the rhythm. This ensures a comprehensive assessment and helps in identifying any potential issues or abnormalities. Rechecking the pulse at the same site after 5 minutes (Choice B) may not provide an immediate understanding of the irregularity. Measuring the client's blood pressure (Choice C) is important but not directly related to addressing the irregular pulse. Recording the irregularity and continuing with other vital signs (Choice D) may overlook a potentially serious cardiac issue that requires immediate attention.
An older adult client just diagnosed with colon cancer asks the nurse what the primary care provider is going to do. The provider will be making rounds within the hour. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assisting the client in preparing questions is the most appropriate action as it helps ensure that all concerns are addressed during the provider's visit. By helping the client write down questions, the nurse empowers the client to actively participate in their care and communicate effectively with the provider. Reassuring the client, while well-intentioned, may not address the specific questions or fears the client has. Explaining the procedure in detail may not be what the client is seeking at this moment, as their primary concern is about the provider's actions. Directing the client to search for information online is not recommended as it may lead to confusion or misinformation, and the information may not be tailored to the client's specific situation.
A nurse is caring for a client postoperatively. When the nurse prepares to change the dressing, the client says it hurts. Which intervention is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering pain medication before the dressing change is the priority action to help manage the client's pain effectively. This intervention ensures that the client is comfortable during the procedure. Changing the dressing quickly may cause more discomfort to the client. Providing reassurance is important but does not address the immediate pain concern. Using a less painful dressing technique may be helpful, but administering pain medication first is the priority to address the client's pain promptly.
A client with an NG tube is receiving intermittent feedings through an open system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30°. Elevating the head of the bed prevents aspiration of the enteral formula, which is a priority in caring for a client with an NG tube. This action helps in reducing the risk of complications such as pneumonia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While rinsing the feeding bag, ensuring the enteral formula temperature, and maintaining cleanliness are important aspects of enteral feeding care, the priority is to prevent aspiration by keeping the head of the bed elevated. These actions can be implemented after ensuring the client's safety by maintaining the correct bed position.
When reviewing a client's fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.
A nurse is discussing the nursing process with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse should the nurse identify as appropriate for the planning step of the nursing process?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the nursing process, the planning step involves determining priorities and goals based on the identified problems. Choice A is correct as it reflects the nurse's role in identifying the most important client problems to address, which aligns with the planning phase. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B involves data collection, which is a part of the assessment phase, not planning. Choice C pertains to the implementation of care, which occurs after the planning phase. Choice D involves evaluation of a specific intervention, not planning.
A client is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. After the nurse explains the procedure, which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because the client's statement indicates a misunderstanding about the need to lie still during the bronchoscopy procedure. The client actually needs to remain still for the procedure to ensure its accuracy and safety. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate an understanding of the procedure by acknowledging the local anesthetic for discomfort, the possibility of receiving medicine for relaxation, and the requirement to fast before the procedure, respectively.
A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Choice A, allowing extra time for the client to respond to questions, is the appropriate strategy when educating an older adult with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Older adults may need additional time to process information and formulate responses. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client will have difficulty understanding the information, which may not be the case. Choice C is incorrect because referencing the client's past experiences can help personalize the education session. Choice D is also incorrect as keeping the learning session private and one-on-one may not be necessary for all clients and may limit the potential benefits of group education and support.
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