HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra anti-anxiety medication because, 'I'm so stressed out. I just wanted to go to sleep.' The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?
- A. What should I do? Nothing seems to help.
- B. I have been so tired lately and needed to sleep.
- C. I really think that I don't need to be here.
- D. I don't want to talk. Nothing matters anymore.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because expressing feelings of hopelessness or nihilism can be indicators of a deeper, possibly dangerous level of depression. Choice A is incorrect as it indicates seeking help, Choice B suggests fatigue, and Choice C implies denial of needing help, none of which directly signify severe depression warranting one-on-one observation.
2. A female client presents to the emergency center with confusion, emotional numbness, and expresses to the nurse a feeling of disbelief that she was raped. The nurse determines the client is in the acute phase of rape-trauma syndrome. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Secure samples of vaginal hair combings.
- B. Offer prophylactic antibiotic medication.
- C. Explain the rape protocol to the client.
- D. Implement crisis intervention counseling.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of rape-trauma syndrome, it is crucial to provide clear information about what to expect during the examination and treatment. This can help the client regain a sense of control and reduce anxiety. Explaining the rape protocol to the client should be the first action to implement. Option A is not the priority at this stage as the immediate focus is on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option B is not the first action unless medically indicated. Option D, crisis intervention counseling, is important but should come after providing essential information and support to the client.
3. The wife of a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia visits 2 days after her husband's admission and states to the nurse, 'Why isn't he eating? He's still talking about his food being poisoned.' Which of the following appraisals by the LPN/LVN is most accurate?
- A. The wife's inquiry is reasonable.
- B. Education about her husband's medication is needed.
- C. Her expectations of her husband are realistic.
- D. An increase in the client's medication is needed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The wife needs education about her husband's medication to understand how it affects his perceptions, including paranoid thoughts about food. Choice A is incorrect because the wife's inquiry reflects her lack of understanding of the situation rather than being reasonable. Choice C is incorrect as the husband's condition requires specialized care beyond what the wife might consider realistic. Choice D is incorrect as increasing medication should not be the immediate response; education and reassurance are key in this situation.
4. A male client turns over a table in the dayroom of a psychiatric unit and threatens to throw a chair at another client. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Calmly approach the client and remove the chair from the client.
- B. Obtain staff assistance to help diffuse the escalating situation.
- C. Offer feedback about the client's behavior.
- D. Summon the hospital security guards as a 'show of force.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where a client is displaying aggressive behavior, the most important action for the nurse to implement is to obtain staff assistance to help diffuse the escalating situation. This approach ensures the safety of all individuals involved and prevents the situation from escalating further. Calmly approaching the client and removing the chair directly could agitate the client further and pose a risk to the nurse. Offering feedback about the client's behavior may not address the immediate safety concerns. Summoning hospital security guards as a 'show of force' should be a last resort after other de-escalation attempts have failed, as it may further provoke the client.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with schizophrenia who is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). Which information should the nurse include?
- A. You need to come in for regular blood tests.
- B. This medication can cause weight loss.
- C. You can stop taking this medication once you feel better.
- D. Avoid foods high in tyramine while on this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You need to come in for regular blood tests.' Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition, so regular blood tests are required to monitor the client's white blood cell count. Choice B is incorrect because clozapine is associated with weight gain, not weight loss. Choice C is incorrect because the client should never stop taking clozapine abruptly due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms and symptom relapse. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding foods high in tyramine is typically associated with MAOIs, not clozapine.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access