HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra anti-anxiety medication because, 'I'm so stressed out. I just wanted to go to sleep.' The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?
- A. What should I do? Nothing seems to help.
- B. I have been so tired lately and needed to sleep.
- C. I really think that I don't need to be here.
- D. I don't want to talk. Nothing matters anymore.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because expressing feelings of hopelessness or nihilism can be indicators of a deeper, possibly dangerous level of depression. Choice A is incorrect as it indicates seeking help, Choice B suggests fatigue, and Choice C implies denial of needing help, none of which directly signify severe depression warranting one-on-one observation.
2. An elderly client was prescribed Ativan 1 mg three times a day to help calm her anxiety after her husband's death. The next day the client calls her daughter asking when she is picking her up to go to the graveside. The client says she has been walking up and down the driveway for the past hour waiting for her daughter. Noting the client's agitation, hyperactivity, and insistence, the daughter calls the nurse to report her mother's behavior. What should the nurse suspect?
- A. The client is manic and may need a sleeping pill
- B. The client is experiencing a medication interaction and should go to the ED
- C. The client is experiencing a paradoxical reaction to the Ativan and should stop the new medication immediately
- D. The client is overcome by grief and probably needs an antidepressant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A paradoxical reaction to Ativan, where the drug causes opposite effects such as increased agitation and hyperactivity, should prompt immediate cessation of the medication. In this scenario, the client was prescribed Ativan to help calm her anxiety, but instead, she is displaying symptoms of increased agitation and hyperactivity, indicating a paradoxical reaction. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms described do not align with mania. Choice B is incorrect as there is no mention of a medication interaction. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of a paradoxical reaction rather than overwhelming grief.
3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of depression. The nurse knows that which characteristic is most indicative of depression?
- A. Grandiose ideation.
- B. Self-destructive thoughts.
- C. Suspiciousness of others.
- D. A negative view of self and the future.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A negative view of self and the future (D) is a prominent characteristic of depression. It reflects the core symptoms of low self-esteem and hopelessness that are commonly associated with this condition. Grandiose ideation (A) and suspiciousness of others (C) are more indicative of other mental health disorders like paranoia. While self-destructive thoughts (B) can be present in depression, they are not as specific and common as the negative self-view and hopelessness, making option (D) the most indicative characteristic of depression.
4. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The client reports feeling restless and unable to sit still. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and relax.
- B. Assess the client for signs of akathisia.
- C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Restlessness and inability to sit still are signs of akathisia, an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications. The nurse should first assess the client for signs of akathisia by observing their movements and behavior. Assessing for akathisia is crucial to differentiate it from other conditions and to intervene appropriately. Instructing the client to relax or engage in physical activity may not address the underlying issue of akathisia. Administering lorazepam should not be the first action as it may mask the symptoms of akathisia temporarily without addressing the root cause.
5. A male client with borderline personality disorder is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules. What is the best approach for the nurse to take?
- A. Enforce unit rules consistently with all clients.
- B. Ignore the manipulative behaviors to avoid confrontation.
- C. Provide the client with special privileges to avoid conflict.
- D. Confront the client directly about his behavior.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse to take when dealing with a male client with borderline personality disorder who is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules is to enforce unit rules consistently with all clients. By maintaining consistency in enforcing rules, the nurse establishes clear boundaries and provides structure, which are essential for managing manipulative behavior in clients with borderline personality disorder. Ignoring the manipulative behaviors (Choice B) may lead to the reinforcement of negative behaviors. Providing the client with special privileges (Choice C) can enable further manipulation and is not recommended. Confronting the client directly about his behavior (Choice D) may escalate the situation and is less effective than consistent rule enforcement.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access