Free HESI LPN Fundamentals of Nursing practice for Fundamentals HESI (HESI LPN). Answer 91 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress
The nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer on the sacrum. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to prevent further skin breakdown?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Repositioning the client every 2 hours is the most appropriate action to prevent further skin breakdown in a client with a pressure ulcer on the sacrum. This practice helps relieve pressure on the affected area, promoting circulation and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing (Choice A) may be beneficial for wound healing but is not the initial preventive measure. Using a donut-shaped cushion (Choice C) can actually increase pressure on the sacrum and worsen the condition. Massaging the area around the ulcer (Choice D) can further damage delicate skin and tissues, leading to more harm instead of prevention.
A client with difficulty self-feeding due to rheumatoid arthritis should be referred to which member of the interprofessional care team to use adaptive devices?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Occupational therapist. Occupational therapists specialize in assisting clients with adaptive devices to enhance their ability to perform daily activities like self-feeding. They evaluate client needs and provide interventions to promote independence in activities of daily living. Choice A, Social worker, focuses on psychosocial support and community resources, not directly addressing the physical aspect of self-feeding difficulty. Choice B, Certified nursing assistant, is involved in direct patient care but lacks specialized training in adaptive devices. Choice C, Registered dietitian, primarily focuses on nutrition-related issues and may not have the expertise in adaptive devices and functional rehabilitation necessary for this client's self-feeding challenges.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB). Which type of isolation precautions should the healthcare provider implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB), airborne precautions should be implemented. Tuberculosis is spread through the air via droplet nuclei, requiring the use of airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of the infection. Droplet precautions are used for diseases spread by large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or pertussis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread through direct contact, such as MRSA. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the transmission of infections from blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.
The healthcare provider attaches a pulse oximeter to a client's fingers and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Edema, indicated by 2+ edema of fingers and hands, can impair blood flow and peripheral perfusion, leading to reduced oxygen saturation readings on a pulse oximeter. High blood pressure (choice A) would not directly affect oxygen saturation readings. Radial pulse volume (choice C) and capillary refill time (choice D) are more related to assessing circulation rather than contributing significantly to oxygen saturation readings.
A nurse is calculating a client's fluid intake over the past 8 hr. Which of the following items should the nurse plan to document on the client's intake and output record as 120 mL of fluid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 8 oz of ice chips. When calculating fluid intake, the nurse should document half of the volume of ice chips to account for the air in between the chips. Therefore, 8 oz of ice chips equals 120 mL of fluid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not equate to 120 mL of fluid intake as per the given scenario. Choice A, 2 cups of soup, is more than 120 mL. Choice B, 1 quart of water, is significantly more than 120 mL. Choice D, 6 oz of tea, is less than 120 mL.
A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when transferring a postoperative client from the gurney to the bed is to lock the wheels on both the bed and the gurney. Locking the wheels ensures stability and prevents accidents during the transfer. Adjusting the bed height may be necessary for comfort but is not the primary concern during the transfer process. Using a slide sheet may be helpful in repositioning the client once on the bed but is not essential for the initial transfer. Asking for assistance from another nurse is always a good practice, but the immediate action to ensure safety during the transfer is to lock the wheels.
A client with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing and wheezing. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and wheezing, the priority nursing action is to administer a bronchodilator. This intervention helps relieve bronchospasm and improve the client's breathing. Obtaining a peak flow reading can provide additional information but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Providing supplemental oxygen may be needed but addressing the bronchospasm with a bronchodilator takes precedence. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is important but not as urgent as administering a bronchodilator to address the breathing difficulty.
A client with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is seeking advice on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. What action should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Keeping a food diary is an essential practice when starting a weight loss plan as it helps in tracking calorie intake, identifying eating patterns, and making informed decisions about dietary changes. Planning meals with low carbohydrates and high protein (Choice A) can be beneficial for some individuals, but keeping a food diary is more foundational. Engaging in strenuous daily activity (Choice B) may not be sustainable for everyone and could lead to burnout or injuries. Participating in a group exercise class (Choice D) is beneficial for fitness but may not address dietary habits, which are crucial for weight loss.
While caring for a client who is postoperative and has refused to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery, what is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's priority is to determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer. By understanding the client's concerns or barriers, the nurse can address them appropriately. Requesting a respiratory therapist (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the priority. Documenting the refusal (Choice C) is important but does not address the immediate need to assess and intervene. Administering pain medication (Choice D) without addressing the root cause of refusal is not appropriate and may mask the issue rather than resolve it.
A healthcare professional is planning care for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to include in the plan is to keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder. This positioning helps ensure proper drainage and prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections. Emptying the drainage bag regularly is important, typically every 4-8 hours or when it is half-full, to maintain adequate flow and prevent infection (Choice A is incorrect). Using a sterile technique to collect specimens from the drainage system is crucial to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract, so clean technique should not be used (Choice C is incorrect). Taping the catheter to the lower abdomen is not recommended as it can cause tension on the catheter, leading to discomfort and potential trauma to the urethra (Choice D is incorrect).
During an eye irrigation for a client exposed to smoke and ash, which nursing action should receive the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The highest priority during an eye irrigation for a client exposed to smoke and ash is wearing gloves during the procedure. This action is crucial as it helps prevent contamination and protects both the client and the nurse. Using a sterile solution is important but not as critical as ensuring the nurse's safety by wearing gloves. Irrigating from the inner to the outer canthus and positioning the client's head properly are essential steps in eye irrigation, but they are not the highest priority in this scenario compared to ensuring infection control by wearing gloves.
A healthcare professional is preparing to perform denture care for a client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to brush the dentures with a toothbrush and denture cleaner. This action ensures effective cleaning of the dentures. Dentures should be rinsed with cool or lukewarm water, not hot water, to prevent damage. Placing the dentures in a clean, dry storage container is not the immediate next step after cleaning; they should be kept moist to prevent warping.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which site is most appropriate for the healthcare professional to use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The ventrogluteal site is the most appropriate site for administering an intramuscular injection to an adult client. This site is preferred due to its large muscle mass and distance from major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of injury or complications. The deltoid muscle, while commonly used for vaccinations, may not be suitable for certain medications due to its smaller muscle mass. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve, which can lead to complications. The rectus femoris site is not commonly used for intramuscular injections in clinical practice.
A caregiver of an immobile client requiring assistance with repositioning is being taught by a nurse on preventing back strain. Which statement by the caregiver indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Tightening the abdominal muscles before moving helps protect the back by providing core support. Keeping the legs straight (choice C) is incorrect as bending the legs is recommended to provide a stable base and prevent strain on the back. Twisting at the waist (choice D) while moving can cause back injury due to the strain on the spine. Placing the bed in the lowest position (choice A) is not directly related to preventing back strain during client repositioning, although it may be necessary for other reasons.
The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications. Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments. Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects. Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.
A home health nurse is planning to provide health promotion activities for a group of clients in the community. Which of the following activities is an example of the nurse promoting primary prevention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Educating clients about the recommended immunization schedule for adults. This activity falls under primary prevention, which aims to prevent the onset of illness or injury. Immunizations are a proactive measure to protect individuals from developing certain diseases. Choices B, C, and D involve managing chronic illnesses, providing counseling for mental health issues, and offering support for individuals who have already experienced cancer, respectively. These activities are more aligned with secondary or tertiary prevention, focusing on managing existing conditions or preventing complications in those already affected.
The client is receiving discharge instructions for a new antihypertensive medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Stopping antihypertensive medication abruptly can lead to rebound hypertension, which can be dangerous. Clients should never discontinue their medication without consulting their healthcare provider first. Choice B is correct because monitoring blood pressure is essential when taking antihypertensive medication to ensure it stays within the target range. Choice C is correct as alcohol can potentiate the hypotensive effects of antihypertensive medications. Choice D is correct as orthostatic hypotension can occur, so rising slowly helps prevent dizziness and falls. Therefore, choice A is the statement that indicates a need for further teaching.
The nurse is teaching an elderly client how to use MDIs (multi-dose inhalers). The nurse is concerned that the client is unable to coordinate the release of the medication with the inhalation phase. What is the nurse's best recommendation to improve the delivery of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister is the best recommendation in this scenario. The spacer device helps to improve coordination and medication delivery by allowing the client more time to inhale the medication effectively. Nebulized treatments for home care (Choice A) involve a different delivery method and are not directly related to improving coordination with MDIs. Asking a family member to assist (Choice C) may not address the core issue of coordination between releasing the medication and inhalation. Requesting a visiting nurse (Choice D) may not be necessary if the client can improve coordination with the spacer device.
When using an open irrigation technique for a client's catheter, what action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when using an open irrigation technique for a client's catheter is to subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output. This subtraction helps accurately assess the client's output by accounting for the volume of irrigant introduced. Choice B is incorrect because adding the irrigant to the urine output measurement would falsely inflate the total output, leading to inaccurate assessment. Choice C is incorrect as measuring the amount of irrigant separately does not provide an accurate assessment of the client's total output as it disregards the irrigant's contribution. Choice D is incorrect as documenting the total fluid used for irrigation only does not differentiate between the irrigant and the client's actual urine output, which is crucial for accurate monitoring and assessment.
The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being educated about lifestyle changes. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Clients with COPD should limit alcohol intake, not just to weekends, to effectively manage their condition. Excessive alcohol consumption can worsen respiratory symptoms and interfere with medications. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate and beneficial for clients with COPD. Salt intake reduction helps in managing fluid retention and blood pressure. Regular exercise improves lung function and overall health. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial for individuals with COPD as hypertension is a common comorbidity.
A client has a sodium level of 125. What findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Low sodium levels (hyponatremia) often present with various symptoms, including abdominal cramping. Abdominal cramping is a common manifestation of hyponatremia due to the altered electrolyte balance. Option B ('Elevated blood pressure') is incorrect because low sodium levels typically lead to decreased blood pressure, not elevated. Option C ('Decreased heart rate') is incorrect as low sodium levels are more likely to cause an irregular heart rate rather than a decreased heart rate. Option D ('Increased thirst') is incorrect because excessive thirst is more commonly associated with high sodium levels (hypernatremia) rather than low sodium levels.
A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take next after preparing the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves is to clean sutures along the incision site. This step is crucial in preventing infection, which is the greatest risk to the client during suture removal. Cleaning the site helps minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the incision, reducing the chances of infection. Grasping at the knot of the sutures with forceps (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the need to clean the incision. Cutting the sutures close to the skin on one side (Choice C) or pulling out the sutures with forceps in one piece (Choice D) without proper cleaning can increase the risk of infection and should not be the next step in the process of suture removal.
Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.
A nurse is planning to insert a nasogastric tube for a client after explaining the procedure. The client states, 'You are not putting that hose down my throat.' Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, the nurse should acknowledge the client's feelings by stating, 'I can see that this is upsetting you.' This response validates the client's emotions and demonstrates empathy, which can help build trust and rapport. Choice B is too direct and might not address the client's emotional state. Choice C focuses on the outcome rather than the client's current distress. Choice D does not directly address the client's feelings of distress and may not effectively alleviate their anxiety.
When evaluating care of an immobilized patient, which action will the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When evaluating the care of an immobilized patient, the nurse should focus on assessing outcomes and response to nursing care. By comparing the patient's actual outcomes with the outcomes identified during planning, the nurse can determine the effectiveness of the interventions implemented. This process allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the care provided. Choice A is incorrect because the satisfaction of the interdisciplinary team does not directly reflect the patient's outcomes and response to care. Choice C is incorrect as it mainly focuses on the involvement of the patient's family and healthcare team, which may not provide a holistic evaluation of the patient's care. Choice D is incorrect as relying solely on objective data may lead to overlooking important subjective aspects of the patient's response and outcomes, which are also crucial in evaluating care effectively.
A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the LPN/LVN include in this client's teaching plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client who had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip is to 'Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.' This technique helps maintain proper hip alignment and prevents dislocation during the postoperative recovery period. Choice A is incorrect because bending at the waist to reach items on the floor can strain the hip joint and is not recommended following hip surgery. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker alone without assistance can increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in the immediate postoperative period. Choice D is incorrect because pain medication should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not specifically timed after physical therapy sessions.
A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.
The client has expressive aphasia and needs assistance to communicate. Which method should the LPN use to best support the client's ability to express basic needs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to use a picture board with common needs. Clients with expressive aphasia have difficulty speaking but can often understand and use visual aids effectively. Using a picture board helps the client communicate basic needs more easily. Encouraging the client to speak slowly (choice B) may not be effective as the issue lies with expressive language, not speed. Writing down what the client says (choice C) may not always be possible or helpful for immediate communication as it does not address the communication barrier directly. Using hand gestures (choice D) may not be as clear or universally understood as a picture board, which can cause confusion and misinterpretation.
A client has extracellular fluid volume deficit. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Postural hypotension is a common sign of extracellular fluid volume deficit due to decreased blood volume, leading to a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Distended neck veins, dependent edema, and bradycardia are not typically associated with extracellular fluid volume deficit. Distended neck veins are more indicative of fluid volume overload, dependent edema is a sign of fluid retention, and bradycardia is not a common finding in extracellular fluid volume deficit.
A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment as she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct course of action for the nurse is to determine which staff members have already been fitted for particulate filter masks before changing assignments. This ensures safety and compliance with infection control protocols. Option A is incorrect as wearing a standard face mask before being fitted for a filter mask does not address compliance with droplet precautions. Option B is incorrect because the priority is to ensure all staff members have appropriate equipment before providing care. Option C is incorrect as a standard mask may not offer sufficient protection when dealing with clients under droplet precautions.
A 25-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing diagnosis should have the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a case of hyperemesis gravidarum, the priority nursing diagnosis should be addressing the Fluid volume deficit. This condition can lead to serious complications such as electrolyte imbalances and dehydration, which can endanger both the mother and the fetus if not managed promptly. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements is important but addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it poses an immediate threat. Anxiety related to new situational crisis and Activity intolerance related to fatigue are valid concerns, but they are secondary to the critical issue of fluid volume deficit in this scenario.
The healthcare provider is planning care for a 3-month-old infant immediately postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus. The healthcare provider needs to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing for abdominal distention is crucial in this situation as it can indicate a complication with the shunt or fluid accumulation. Abdominal distention may suggest an issue with the shunt placement, such as obstruction or overdrainage, which requires immediate intervention. Maintaining the infant in an upright position (Choice B) is not the priority immediately postoperatively following a ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement. Beginning formula feedings when the infant is alert (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority over assessing for abdominal distention. Pumping the shunt to assess for proper function (Choice D) is not a recommended nursing intervention postoperatively and should be done by a qualified healthcare provider.
A nurse manager is preparing to review practice guidelines with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include that is within the RN scope of practice?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Initiate an enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube. It is within the RN scope of practice for nurses to initiate enteral feedings through nasoenteric, gastrostomy, and jejunostomy tubes. Options A, B, and C involve procedures that typically fall within the scope of other healthcare professionals. Inserting an implanted port is often performed by specialized nurses or physicians, closing a laceration with sutures is usually done by healthcare providers with specific training in wound care, and placing an endotracheal tube is a procedure commonly carried out by anesthesiologists or respiratory therapists.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) IV 100 mL over 15 min. How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To administer 100 mL over 15 min, the IV pump should be set to deliver 400 mL/hr. This calculation is based on the concept that if 100 mL is given in 15 minutes, to find out how many milliliters are given in an hour, you would multiply by 4 (since 15 minutes is a quarter of an hour). Therefore, 100 mL x 4 = 400 mL per hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate required to administer 100 mL over 15 minutes.
A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.
The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.
A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's health record and notes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A routine prescription, such as lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily, is administered on a regular schedule with or without a termination date. It is a standard, ongoing prescription for maintenance therapy. Choice A, 'Single,' would typically refer to a one-time prescription. Choice B, 'Stat,' is used for prescriptions that are needed immediately or in emergency situations. Choice D, 'Now,' is not a common prescription type designation and is not applicable in this context.
When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using a transfer belt if the client is unsteady is essential to provide added safety and support during ambulation. This device helps the nurse assist the client in maintaining balance and prevents falls. Walking beside the client without support (choice B) may not offer enough assistance for a frail, older adult who is unsteady. Encouraging the client to use a walker (choice C) could be helpful in some cases, but if the client is unsteady during ambulation, additional support like a transfer belt is more appropriate. Holding the client's arm for support (choice D) may not provide enough stability and safety compared to using a transfer belt.
Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5.5 hours. How much heparin has the client received?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the total amount of heparin received, multiply the infusion rate (50 ml/hour) by the total infusion time (5.5 hours). This results in 275 ml of the solution infused. Since there are 20,000 units of heparin in 500 ml, there are 800 units per ml. Therefore, 275 ml contains 220,000 units. However, the heparin is diluted in 500 ml, so the client has received half of this amount, which is 110,000 units. Therefore, the correct answer is 11,000 units. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
A nurse is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. In which of the following situations does the nurse demonstrate the ethical principle of veracity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Veracity involves telling the truth, a fundamental ethical principle in healthcare. In this scenario, the nurse demonstrates veracity by responding honestly when the client directly asks about her cancer diagnosis. Choice B is incorrect as avoiding discussing the diagnosis to prevent emotional distress does not align with veracity and transparency. Choice C is incorrect as providing a vague answer does not uphold the principle of truthfulness. Choice D is incorrect because promising to provide information only upon client request does not address the immediate question about the cancer diagnosis and lacks transparency.
The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has just had a liver biopsy. What position should the nurse place the client in immediately following the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct position for a client immediately following a liver biopsy is right side-lying with a pillow under the costal margin. This position helps prevent bleeding by applying pressure to the biopsy site. Placing the client supine with the right arm raised above the head (Choice A) or supine with the head of the bed elevated (Choice B) are not ideal positions for post-liver biopsy care as they do not provide the necessary pressure to the biopsy site. Left side-lying with the head of the bed flat (Choice D) is also not recommended as it does not assist in preventing bleeding after a liver biopsy.
What instruction should the nurse provide for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA who has a prescription for contact precautions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA under contact precautions is to don a gown and gloves when entering the room. Wearing a gown and gloves is necessary to prevent the transmission of MRSA. Choice A is incorrect because visitors may be allowed with proper precautions in place. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client has body fluid precautions, which is not specified. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the UAP's protective measures but rather focuses on the client wearing a mask.
The healthcare provider is reviewing the plan of care for a client with a newly placed colostomy. Which outcome would indicate effective client teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because effective teaching is demonstrated when the client can independently perform ostomy care. This indicates that the client has understood and retained the information provided during teaching. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because demonstrating how to irrigate the colostomy, verbalizing understanding of dietary changes, and expressing feelings about the impact of the colostomy are important aspects of care but do not directly reflect the client's ability to apply the taught information in a practical setting.
A newly licensed nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client. The nurse notes that the provider has prescribed a medication that is unfamiliar. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When encountering an unfamiliar medication, the safest action for a nurse is to consult the medication reference book available on the unit. This resource provides accurate and detailed information about medications, including indications, dosages, side effects, and nursing considerations. Administering a medication without understanding it (choice B) can lead to medication errors and harm to the client. Asking a colleague for information (choice C) may not always provide accurate or up-to-date information. Contacting the provider (choice D) should be reserved for situations where immediate clarification is needed, but consulting the reference book is the initial step to gain knowledge and ensure safe medication administration.
The client is being discharged and has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Weighing daily and reporting significant weight loss is crucial when taking furosemide to monitor for potential fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is typically taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, so potassium-rich foods should be consumed. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken earlier in the day to prevent nocturia, not at bedtime.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a vest restraint. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the healthcare professional to take when applying a vest restraint is to tie it with a quick-release knot. A quick-release knot allows for easy and rapid removal in case of an emergency, ensuring the safety of the client. Using a slipknot (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not provide quick release in emergencies. Ensuring the restraint is tightly secured (Choice C) can be dangerous as it can restrict circulation or cause discomfort. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame (Choice D) is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or injury to the client.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. What is the best initial action for the LPN/LVN to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best initial action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia is to give them 4 ounces of orange juice. Orange juice quickly raises blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic client. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is not the best initial action for hypoglycemia; it is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia cases. Giving a snack containing protein and carbohydrates is not as rapid as orange juice in raising blood glucose levels during hypoglycemia. Encouraging the client to rest until symptoms resolve does not address the immediate need to raise blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic state.
A client has been diagnosed with terminal cancer. Which of the following interventions is a priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client receives a terminal cancer diagnosis, it is crucial to prioritize developing a list of goals with the client. This process helps the client focus on what is important to them, set achievable objectives, and maintain a sense of purpose and control. Teaching relaxation techniques (choice A) may be beneficial for symptom management but is not the priority when confronting a terminal illness. While finding a local support group (choice B) can be valuable for emotional support, it does not directly address setting goals. Discussing prior coping mechanisms (choice C) can provide insights into the client's coping strategies but may not be as essential as establishing future goals in the face of a terminal illness.
The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Yellowing of the skin and eyes (jaundice) is a classic sign of liver dysfunction in clients with cirrhosis. Jaundice indicates the accumulation of bilirubin in the body due to impaired liver function. This finding suggests worsening liver damage and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and management. Dark-colored urine (choice B) is also a concerning symptom in liver disease, indicating possible bilirubin presence, but it is not as urgent as jaundice. Abdominal distention (choice C) and confusion (choice D) are common in cirrhosis but do not indicate an immediate need for healthcare provider notification compared to jajsondice.
While administering a cleansing enema, the client reports abdominal cramping. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client reports abdominal cramping during a cleansing enema, it is important for the nurse to reassure the client that cramping is a common side effect. This reassurance helps the client understand that the cramping is normal and may subside once the enema is completed. Instructing the client to hold their breath and bear down (Choice A) is not appropriate and may cause discomfort. Clamping the enema tubing (Choice B) is unnecessary and could lead to complications. Raising the level of the enema fluid container (Choice D) does not address the client's discomfort due to cramping. Therefore, the most suitable action is to provide reassurance to the client about the common occurrence of cramping during the enema.
A client reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's priority should be the client's temperature. A high temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F) indicates a potential infection or inflammation that requires immediate attention. While heart rate and abdominal tenderness are important assessments, the temperature takes precedence as it signals a more urgent issue. Overdue menses, although significant, are not the priority in this scenario when compared to the possibility of an acute infection or inflammatory process.
A guardian reports that a 4-year-old child is waking up with nightmares. Which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to have the child go to bed at a consistent time every day. Consistent bedtime routines can help reduce nightmares by providing the child with a sense of security and stability. Offering a large snack before bedtime or allowing extra TV time may disrupt sleep patterns and lead to nightmares. Increasing physical activity before bedtime could have the opposite effect and make it harder for the child to fall asleep.
A client has recently started using a behind-the-ear hearing aid. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the use of this assistive device?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because removing the hearing aid before taking a shower is essential to prevent water damage, as moisture can harm the device. Choice A is incorrect because behind-the-ear hearing aids do allow for fine-tuning of volume. Choice B is incorrect because exercise may cause the hearing aid to shift position, so it's important to ensure it stays secure. Choice C is incorrect because hearing a whistling sound when inserting the hearing aid may indicate improper placement or fit.
When caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and circulatory insufficiency, experiencing peripheral neuropathy and urinary incontinence, on which areas does the nurse focus care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should focus on decreased pain sensation and increased risk of skin impairment due to the patient's conditions. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to decreased pain sensation, making the patient more prone to injuries without realizing it. Additionally, the combination of circulatory insufficiency, peripheral neuropathy, and urinary incontinence can increase the risk of skin breakdown and impaired healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific issues related to the patient's diagnoses and symptoms.
A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.
A client is being taught how to care for their tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction is to use tracheostomy covers when outdoors. Tracheostomy covers serve to protect the airway from environmental contaminants, reducing the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect because hydrogen peroxide can be irritating to the skin and is not recommended for cleaning the tracheostomy site. Choice C is incorrect as tracheostomy tubes should not be routinely changed weekly unless there is a specific medical indication. Changing it without a need can introduce infection or damage the stoma. Choice D is incorrect as applying ointment around the tracheostomy site can lead to occlusion of the stoma and interfere with breathing.
A group member is being taught about expected changes of aging by a nurse. Which statement by the group member shows effective learning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is the correct answer because as individuals age, there is a normal decline in cardiac efficiency, leading to a slower return to baseline heart rate after exercise. This statement demonstrates an understanding of an expected change related to aging. Choice B is incorrect as vision typically declines with age due to changes in the eye's structure. Choice C is incorrect because aging usually leads to a decrease in skin elasticity. Choice D is incorrect as hearing tends to decline rather than become more acute with age.
A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with a 2-day history of weight gain, swelling in the legs, and shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Performing a physical assessment is the most appropriate initial nursing action in this scenario. A thorough physical assessment helps evaluate the client's current condition, severity of symptoms, and identify any immediate concerns. This assessment can provide crucial information to guide further interventions and treatment. Reviewing the client's medication list (choice B) is important but may not address the immediate need for assessing the client's current status. Instructing the client to elevate the legs (choice C) may be beneficial but should come after a thorough assessment. Obtaining a detailed dietary history (choice D) is relevant for heart failure management but is not the most urgent initial action when the client presents with acute symptoms like weight gain, leg swelling, and shortness of breath.
During a health assessment, a client who takes herbal supplements makes a statement indicating an understanding of their use. Which statement is most indicative of this understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because ginkgo biloba is commonly used to help with headaches, among other benefits. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because garlic is not typically used for menopausal symptoms, ginger is mainly used for nausea and vomiting (not car sickness specifically), and echinacea is not known to control cholesterol.
The healthcare provider is observing the way a patient walks. Which aspect is the healthcare provider assessing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing the way a patient walks, the healthcare provider is evaluating the gait, which refers to a particular manner or style of walking. Body alignment pertains to the positioning of body parts in relation to one another, range of motion refers to the extent of movement of a joint, and activity tolerance relates to the ability to endure physical activities. In this scenario, observing the patient's walking pattern specifically focuses on gait assessment.
When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to take first when observing blue fingers in a client with wrist restraints is to loosen the right wrist restraint. Blue fingers indicate compromised circulation, and loosening the restraint can help restore blood flow to the area. Applying a pulse oximeter (Choice B) or palpating the right radial pulse (Choice D) may be necessary following the loosening of the restraint to assess the client's oxygen saturation and pulse. Comparing hand color bilaterally (Choice C) is important but not the immediate action needed when a circulation issue is noted in one hand.
A home health nurse is discussing the dangers of carbon monoxide poisoning with a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin in the body.' Carbon monoxide is an odorless, colorless gas, so it does not have a distinct odor (Choice A). While regular inspection of appliances like water heaters is important for safety, it is not directly related to carbon monoxide poisoning (Choice B). Carbon monoxide primarily affects the cardiovascular system by binding with hemoglobin, reducing the blood's ability to carry oxygen, rather than causing direct lung damage (Choice C). Understanding how carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin is crucial in recognizing the mechanism of poisoning and its potential consequences.
When replacing a client's surgical dressing, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When replacing a client's surgical dressing, the nurse should use sterile gloves to remove the old dressing. Sterile technique is essential to prevent introducing infection to the wound. Choice A is incorrect because clean gloves are not sufficient; sterile gloves are necessary to maintain asepsis. Choice B, washing hands, is an important step before and after the procedure to maintain hand hygiene, but sterile gloves are required during the dressing change. Choice D is incorrect because a new dressing should only be applied after the old one has been removed to prevent contamination and ensure proper wound care.
A client is having difficulty breathing while laying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assist the client to an upright position. When a client is having difficulty breathing, promoting optimal oxygenation is essential. Elevating the head of the bed improves ventilation and lung expansion by reducing pressure on the diaphragm. This position allows the lungs to expand fully, enhancing oxygen exchange. Suctioning the airway may be necessary if there are secretions causing obstruction, but it is not the first intervention in this scenario. Administering a bronchodilator is appropriate for bronchoconstriction but does not address the immediate need for better ventilation. Increasing humidity can be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but it is not the initial priority when a client is struggling to breathe.
A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During an acute asthma attack, one of the expected assessments by the nurse would be diffuse expiratory wheezing. This occurs due to narrowed airways and increased airflow velocity. Choice B, a loose productive cough, is not typically associated with an asthma attack. Choice C, no relief from inhaler, may indicate ineffective treatment but is not a direct assessment finding related to the physical examination. Choice D, fever and chills, are not typical symptoms of an asthma attack and would not be expected findings during the initial assessment of an acute asthma attack.
A nurse in a provider's office is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse identify as indicating the correct method for eliciting the client's patellar reflex?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct technique for eliciting the client's patellar reflex is to tap just below the knee. This action stimulates the stretch receptors in the patellar tendon, leading to a reflex contraction of the quadriceps muscle and extension of the lower leg. Tapping on the upper thigh (Choice B) would not elicit the patellar reflex as it targets a different area. Similarly, tapping on the ankle (Choice C) or tapping on the lower leg (Choice D) would not produce the desired response associated with the patellar reflex, making them incorrect choices.
A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.
A client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of congestive heart failure. Which of the following assessments would the nurse expect to be consistent with this problem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inspiratory crackles are a common finding in patients with congestive heart failure due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to crackling sounds during inspiration. Chest pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like angina or myocardial infarction and is not a typical symptom of congestive heart failure. Pallor (Choice B) is a general symptom of various conditions and not specific to congestive heart failure. While a heart murmur (Choice D) may be heard in some cases of congestive heart failure, it is not as consistent as inspiratory crackles in indicating the condition.
A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about mixing regular and NPH insulin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Rolling the NPH vial between the hands before drawing it up ensures proper mixing of the insulin. Choice B is incorrect because regular insulin should be drawn up first to avoid contamination. Choice C is incorrect as injecting air into the vial of regular insulin is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to wait 10 minutes after mixing the insulin before injecting it.
A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.
A post-op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage. The nurse notes that the client's urine bag has been empty for 2 hours. The first action the nurse should take is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when the urine bag has not filled for 2 hours is to check if the tubing is kinked. Kinks in the tubing can obstruct the flow of urine from the catheter, leading to decreased drainage. Increasing the IV fluid rate is not the appropriate initial action in this situation as the primary concern is with the catheter drainage. Checking the catheter insertion site would be secondary to ensuring proper drainage. Contacting the healthcare provider is not necessary as the issue can often be resolved by checking for simple tubing obstructions first.
The patient is being taught about flossing and oral hygiene. What instruction will the nurse include in the teaching session?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Flossing is essential for removing plaque and tartar between teeth, contributing to better oral hygiene. Choice A is not entirely accurate as waxed floss may not solely prevent bleeding. Flossing three times a day, as mentioned in choice C, can be excessive and unnecessary, while choice D is incorrect as applying toothpaste before flossing is not harmful but might not provide additional benefits.
A nurse on a med-surg unit is teaching a newly licensed nurse about tasks to delegate to APs. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Delegating the task of ambulating a client who had a stroke 2 days ago to an AP is appropriate. This task falls within the scope of practice for an AP and can help promote mobility and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C involve more complex nursing assessments or procedures that require a higher level of training and expertise. Taking orthostatic blood pressure measurements, monitoring a peripheral IV insertion site, and performing a central line dressing change should be tasks performed by licensed nurses to ensure proper assessment and management of the client's condition.
During auscultation of a client experiencing chest pain worsened by inspiration, a nurse hears a high-pitched scratching sound in both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope placed at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Pericardial friction rub.' A pericardial friction rub is a high-pitched, scratching sound heard in both systole and diastole, which is characteristic of pericardial inflammation. This sound is different from a murmur, which is a swooshing or blowing sound due to turbulent blood flow. S1 and S2 are normal heart sounds, and a bruit is a whooshing sound caused by turbulent blood flow in an artery, not related to pericardial inflammation.
The nurse is caring for a patient who needs to be placed in the prone position. Which action will the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing a pillow under the patient's lower legs when in the prone position is essential to allow dorsiflexion of the ankles and some knee flexion, which promote relaxation. This position also helps in maintaining proper alignment of the spine. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because turning the head, positioning legs flat against the bed, and raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees are not appropriate actions for a patient in the prone position. Turning the head to one side with a large, soft pillow is commonly done for patients in the supine position to maintain proper alignment and airway patency. Positioning legs flat against the bed is more suitable for a patient in a supine or semi-fowler's position. Raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees is typically done for patients who need semi-fowler's positioning for respiratory support or to prevent aspiration.
While measuring a client's vital signs, the nurse notices an irregularity in the heart rate. Which nursing action is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate nursing action when an irregularity in the heart rate is observed is to count the apical pulse rate for a full minute and describe the rhythm in the chart. This approach helps in obtaining an accurate assessment of the irregularities present. Measuring the blood pressure (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when an irregular heart rate is noted. Performing an ECG (Choice C) may be necessary but is a more advanced intervention that should follow the initial assessment. Rechecking the heart rate after 5 minutes (Choice D) may delay potential interventions for addressing the irregularity, making it less appropriate than the immediate assessment and documentation of the pulse rhythm.
A healthcare provider is witnessing a client sign an informed consent form for surgery. Which of the following describes what the healthcare provider is affirming by this action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. When a healthcare provider witnesses a client signing an informed consent form for surgery, they are affirming that the signature on the form belongs to the client. This is crucial for ensuring patient autonomy and informed decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while it is important for the client to understand the risks of surgery, be aware of postoperative care instructions, and have an opportunity to ask questions, these elements are not specifically affirmed by the healthcare provider witnessing the signature.
A cerebrovascular accident patient is placed on a ventilator. The client's daughter arrives with a durable power of attorney and a living will that indicates no extraordinary life-saving measures. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to notify the healthcare provider. In this situation, involving the healthcare provider ensures appropriate review and adherence to legal and ethical standards based on the living will and durable power of attorney. Referring to the risk manager may not be directly related to the immediate decision-making process regarding the ventilator. Discontinuing the ventilator without proper authorization from the healthcare provider could lead to legal and ethical implications. Reviewing the medical record alone may not provide guidance on how to proceed with the specific instructions from the living will and durable power of attorney.
When admitting a client, what information should the nurse record in the client's record first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When admitting a client, the nurse's first step should be to assess the client. Assessment is crucial as it helps establish a baseline of the client's condition, identify any immediate concerns, and guide the development of an individualized plan of care. Recording the client's medical history, plan of care, or vital signs may follow the initial assessment but are secondary to the primary assessment process.
When ethical dilemmas arise, what should newly licensed nurses expect and identify as an ethical dilemma?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An ethical dilemma involves a situation where there are conflicting values or principles that make it difficult to make a clear decision. In the given scenarios, option C best represents an ethical dilemma as the family has conflicting feelings about initiating enteral tube feedings for their terminally ill father. This situation presents a clash between different values and beliefs, making it challenging to reach a resolution. Options A, B, and D do not illustrate conflicting values or principles that characterize an ethical dilemma. Option A describes a nurse's impairment, which is a concern but not a direct ethical dilemma. Option B depicts a potential breach of client autonomy and restraint use, which is an ethical issue but not a true ethical dilemma. Option D involves a client's personal decision regarding a durable power of attorney form, which, although important, does not present conflicting values or principles that define an ethical dilemma.
A nurse on a med-surg unit is providing care for four clients. The nurse should identify which of the following situations as an ethical dilemma?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. It is an ethical dilemma when the family of a client with a terminal illness asks healthcare providers not to inform the client of their diagnosis. This situation poses a conflict between respecting the client's right to know the truth about their condition (autonomy and truth-telling principles) and honoring the family's wishes. Choices A, B, and D do not present ethical dilemmas. Choice A involves professional accountability and responsibility, Choice B involves a client's personal preference, and Choice D involves financial challenges.
While reviewing the medical records of a client with a pressure ulcer, a nurse should expect which of the following findings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An albumin level below 3.5 g/dL indicates protein deficiency, which can impair wound healing and contribute to pressure ulcer formation. Hemoglobin level and WBC count are not directly associated with pressure ulcers. Blood glucose level, while important for overall health, is not specifically linked to pressure ulcer development.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer gentamicin 2 mg/kg via IV bolus to a client who weighs 220 lb. How many mg should the healthcare professional administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the dosage correctly, the weight in pounds must first be converted to kilograms. 220 lb / 2.2 = 100 kg. Then, multiply the weight in kg by the dosage of 2 mg/kg: 2 mg/kg*100 kg = 200 mg. Therefore, the correct dosage to administer is 200 mg, which is closest to option A. Option C (160 mg) is incorrect because it does not match the calculated dosage. Options B (100 mg) and D (180 mg) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 750 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV to infuse over 7 hr. The professional should set the infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total volume (750 mL) by the total time (7 hr). 750 ÷ 7 ≈ 107 mL/hr. Choice A is correct because it accurately calculates the infusion rate based on the total volume and time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate in this scenario.
A parent is reviewing safety measures for an 8-month-old infant with a nurse. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of safety for the infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is correct because removing the crib gym prevents potential safety hazards such as choking or entrapment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they pose risks to the infant's safety. A firm mattress is recommended for infants to reduce the risk of suffocation. Soft mattresses and fluffy pillows increase the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby's car seat on a table can lead to falls or other accidents.
A nurse is talking with caregivers of a 12-year-old child. Which of the following issues verbalized by the caregivers should the nurse identify as the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Difficulty in keeping up with physical activities like running and jumping may indicate an underlying physical or developmental issue that requires prompt assessment. This could be related to musculoskeletal problems, coordination difficulties, or other health concerns that need further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D, while important, do not address a potential physical or developmental issue that could impact the child's overall well-being. Addressing the child's physical limitations should be the priority to ensure appropriate support and intervention.
A client is scheduled for an appendectomy and has given informed consent. Which statement by the client should the nurse address first preoperatively?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should address the client's lack of understanding regarding the need for surgery first. Ensuring that the client comprehends the rationale for the procedure is essential for informed consent. Choices A, C, and D, while important, do not directly impact the client's understanding of the necessity of the surgery and can be addressed after clarifying the reason for the procedure.
A client diagnosed with a terminal illness asks the nurse about the nurse's religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to express their own thoughts about death and dying is an appropriate nursing response in this situation. It allows the client to explore and express their feelings, fears, and beliefs, facilitating a therapeutic conversation. Sharing personal beliefs (choice A) may not be appropriate as it could impose the nurse's beliefs on the client and hinder open discussion. Redirecting the conversation to medical treatment (choice C) may avoid addressing the client's emotional and spiritual needs. Informing the client that the nurse's beliefs are not relevant (choice D) dismisses the client's concerns and does not encourage open communication.
A nurse is preparing an infusion for a client who was hospitalized with deep-vein thrombosis. The orders read: 25,000 units of heparin in 250 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride to infuse at 800 units/hr. At what rate should the nurse set the infusion pump?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the infusion rate, use the formula: (Desired units/hr / Total units)*Volume. In this case, it would be (800 units/hr / 25,000 units)*250 mL = 8 mL/hr. Therefore, the nurse should set the infusion pump at 8 mL/hr. Choice B, 10 mL/hr, is incorrect because it does not match the calculated rate. Choices C and D, 12 mL/hr and 15 mL/hr respectively, are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided data.
A client is contemplating retirement and expresses uncertainty about wanting to retire. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choosing option A, 'Let's talk about how the change in your job status will affect you,' is the most appropriate response in this scenario. By discussing how retirement might affect the client, the nurse can address the client's concerns and emotions about the impending change. Option B, 'Have you considered the financial implications of retirement?' is not the best response as it focuses solely on financial aspects and does not address the client's emotional readiness for retirement. Option C, 'What are your thoughts on retirement and how it may impact your life?' is more open-ended and may not address the immediate concerns of the client expressing uncertainty. Option D, 'Would you like to discuss potential activities you could engage in during retirement?' assumes the client is certain about retiring and focuses on activities rather than addressing the client's feelings of uncertainty.
During an IV catheter insertion demonstration, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding of the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct technique for IV catheter insertion involves inserting the needle at a 10 to 30-degree angle with the bevel up. This angle facilitates proper vein puncture, reduces the risk of complications, and minimizes trauma to the vein. Choice A is incorrect because threading the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up is the correct technique, not threading it all the way into the vein. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle is not a standard step in IV catheter insertion. Choice D is incorrect because selecting the antecubital fossa vein solely based on its size and accessibility may not be the most appropriate criterion; vein selection should also consider factors like vein condition and patient comfort.
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