Free HESI LPN Medical Surgical Nursing practice for Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI (HESI LPN). Answer 46 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, ex
What should the nurse assess in an infant who has been diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a key assessment finding is an olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, to the right of the midline. This mass is palpable and represents the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because although they may be present in infants with feeding problems, the definitive assessment for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is the presence of an olive-shaped mass on the right side of the abdomen, not a history of diarrhea, gastric pain, or poor appetite.
A client with Addison's disease started taking hydrocortisone in a divided daily dose last week. It is most important for the nurse to monitor which serum laboratory value?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Glucose. Hydrocortisone can lead to increased blood glucose levels, so monitoring glucose is crucial to assess for hyperglycemia, a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring osmolarity (choice A) is not typically indicated in this scenario. Albumin (choice C) and platelets (choice D) are not directly affected by hydrocortisone therapy and are not the primary focus of monitoring in this case.
The nurse is obtaining a client's fingerstick glucose level. After gently milking the client's finger, the nurse observes that the distal tip of the finger appears reddened and engorged. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When the nurse observes that the distal tip of the client's finger is reddened and engorged after milking, it indicates adequate blood flow. At this point, the appropriate action is to collect the blood sample for glucose level testing. Assessing radial pulse volume (Choice B) is unrelated to the situation and not necessary. Applying pressure to the site (Choice C) may disrupt the blood sample collection process. Selecting another finger (Choice D) is not warranted as the engorgement indicates sufficient blood flow for sampling.
The nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who had a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Difficulty swallowing can indicate swelling or hematoma formation, which may compromise the airway and requires immediate intervention. Hoarseness and a weak voice are expected post-thyroidectomy due to manipulation of the laryngeal nerves but do not require immediate intervention. A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and may not require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 110 beats per minute may be elevated due to stress or pain postoperatively, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway.
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of gum tissue. This side effect is important to report to the healthcare provider because it can lead to oral health problems. Choice A, drowsiness, is a common side effect of many antiepileptic drugs but is not specific to phenytoin. Choice C, weight gain, is not a typical side effect of phenytoin. Choice D, blurred vision, is not a common side effect of phenytoin; it is more commonly associated with other medications.
A community hit by a hurricane has suffered mass destruction and flooding. Several facilities are not functioning, and the area is contaminated with human excretions. The nurse is developing a plan of care for clients diagnosed with cholera after an outbreak. Which intervention has the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Providing fluid and electrolyte replacement is the highest priority to prevent dehydration and shock in clients with cholera. Administering prophylactic antibiotics may be necessary but is not the highest priority. Isolating infectious diarrhea victims is important for preventing the spread of infection, but addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Administering a cholera vaccine is preventive and not the immediate priority in treating clients already diagnosed with cholera.
Parents of a 5-year-old child diagnosed with cognitive impairment have come to the nurse to discuss different approaches to the ongoing care of their child. The nurse should suggest focusing on what activity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Performing self-care activities. For a 5-year-old child diagnosed with cognitive impairment, it is crucial to focus on teaching them basic self-care skills. This includes activities like dressing themselves, feeding, and personal hygiene. These skills are fundamental for their daily living and independence. Choices A, B, and D are not appropriate for a young child with cognitive impairment. Acquiring job skills is not developmentally suitable at this age, making decisions may be challenging due to cognitive limitations, and reading and doing simple math may be too advanced for their current cognitive abilities.
Following a bout of diarrhea, which foods should be offered to the school-age child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After rehydration, it is important to offer foods that are nonirritating to the bowel to the child. Bananas and rice are considered the best options as they are least likely to irritate the gastrointestinal tract. Apricots, peaches, and applesauce are fruits that may cause GI irritation, while milk, including chocolate milk, can also be irritating to the bowel. Therefore, the optimal choice for a child recovering from diarrhea would be bananas and rice.
A client who took a camping vacation two weeks ago in a country with a tropical climate comes to the clinic describing vague symptoms and diarrhea for the past week. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the HCP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important finding to report to the healthcare provider is a jaundiced sclera. Jaundice suggests liver involvement, which can be a sign of a serious underlying condition. Weakness and fatigue, intestinal cramping, and weight loss are important symptoms, but jaundice indicates a more urgent issue that needs immediate attention.
Which individual has the highest risk for developing skin cancer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, a 65-year-old fair-skinned male who is a construction worker. Fair-skinned individuals are at higher risk of developing skin cancer due to prolonged sun exposure. Construction workers are often exposed to the sun for long periods, further increasing the risk. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to develop skin cancer compared to choice B due to factors such as age, frequency of tanning bed use, and occupation.
The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.
A client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy with a known vesicant. The client's IV has been in place for 72 hours. The nurse determines that a new IV site cannot be obtained and leaves the present IV in place. What is the greatest clinical risk related to this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Impaired skin integrity. In this situation, the greatest clinical risk is related to impaired skin integrity due to the potential extravasation of the vesicant. Vesicants are substances that can cause severe tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Choices B, C, and D are not the most significant risks in this scenario. Fluid volume excess, acute pain, and peripheral neurovascular dysfunction are not directly associated with leaving the IV in place with a known vesicant for an extended period.
The family of a newly admitted child with cystic fibrosis is educated by the nurse that the treatment will be centered on what therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Chest physiotherapy. In cystic fibrosis, chest physiotherapy and aerosol medications are fundamental components of treatment to help clear mucus from the lungs, reduce the risk of infections, and improve breathing. Mucus-drying agents (Choice B) are not typically used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Prevention of diarrhea (Choice C) is not a primary focus in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Insulin therapy (Choice D) is not relevant to cystic fibrosis, as it is a treatment for diabetes.
How often should the casts be changed for a newborn with talipes who is wearing casts?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Weekly. Treatment of talipes involves manipulation and applying short leg casts. The casts need to be changed weekly to allow for further manipulation and to accommodate the rapid growth of the infant. Changing the casts daily (choice A) would be too frequent and may not provide enough time for the correction to take place. Changing the casts biweekly (choice C) or monthly (choice D) would not provide adequate support for the ongoing correction process required for talipes.
The client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary modifications by the nurse. Which food should the nurse recommend to increase calcium intake?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Broccoli is the correct answer as it is a good source of calcium, which is essential for clients with osteoporosis. Broccoli is a green leafy vegetable that provides a significant amount of calcium. Chicken breast, white bread, and apple do not contain as much calcium as broccoli and therefore are not the best choices to recommend for increasing calcium intake in clients with osteoporosis.
The nurse is reviewing blood pressure readings for a group of clients on a medical unit. Which client is at the highest risk for complications related to hypertension?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates kidney damage, which significantly increases the risk of complications from hypertension. High blood pressure can damage the kidneys over time, leading to impaired kidney function. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with increased risk of complications related to hypertension. Choice A focuses on obesity and overeating, Choice B on anemia and alcohol consumption, and Choice C on a diet high in sodium and nitrates, none of which are as directly related to hypertension complications as kidney damage.
The nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Cries vigorously. When the child cries vigorously, it increases the pressure in the right ventricle, allowing unoxygenated blood to enter the circulating volume, leading to cyanosis. This occurs due to the shunting of blood from the right side of the heart to the left side through the ventricular septal defect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the pressure in the right ventricle, which is crucial in causing cyanosis in this scenario.
When speaking to young parents, the nurse states that lead poisoning is one of the most common preventable health problems affecting children. What condition occurs when the level of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Anemia. When the amount of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone, it leads to anemia. Malnutrition (Choice A) is a state of inadequate nutrition, not directly related to lead poisoning. Bone pain (Choice C) is a symptom of lead poisoning due to its effects on bones but not directly related to lead ingestion exceeding absorption. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a direct consequence of lead ingestion exceeding absorption by bones.
Based on the interpretation of this strip, what action should be implemented first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Call a code.' In the context of ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib), immediate defibrillation is crucial. Calling a code is the first step to activating the emergency response team, including individuals trained to provide defibrillation. Starting CPR (Choice B) may be necessary but should follow defibrillation. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) and applying oxygen (Choice D) are important interventions in cardiac arrest cases, but in V-Fib, the priority is defibrillation to restore normal heart rhythm.
Following surgical repair of the bladder, a female client is being discharged from the hospital to home with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide to this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial instruction for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter post-bladder surgery is to keep the drainage bag positioned lower than the level of the bladder. This positioning prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, reducing the risk of infection. Choice A, avoiding coiling the tubing and keeping it free of kinks, is important to maintain proper flow but not as critical as ensuring the drainage bag is lower than the bladder. Choice B, cleansing the perineal area, is essential for overall hygiene but not directly related to catheter care instructions. Choice D, drinking fluids to irrigate the catheter, is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection and should be guided by healthcare providers based on specific needs.
A client with ulcerative colitis is experiencing frequent diarrhea. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficit. In a client with ulcerative colitis experiencing frequent diarrhea, the priority nursing diagnosis is addressing the potential fluid volume deficit due to significant fluid loss. Maintaining adequate hydration is crucial to prevent complications associated with dehydration. While choices A, C, and D can also be concerns for a client with ulcerative colitis, addressing fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's physiological stability and can lead to serious complications if not managed promptly.
A woman with chronic osteoarthritis is complaining of knee pain. Which pathophysiological process is contributing to her pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. In osteoarthritis, the breakdown of cartilage in the joints leads to chondrocyte injury, which results in the destruction of joint cartilage and the production of osteophytes. This process causes joint inflammation and pain. Choice A is incorrect because osteoarthritis primarily involves the articular cartilage rather than the synovial membrane. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the degeneration of cartilage but does not explain the specific pathophysiological process contributing to pain in osteoarthritis. Choice D is incorrect as the formation of uric acid crystals is characteristic of gout, not osteoarthritis.
What is the priority patient problem for the parents of a newborn born with cleft lip and palate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Risk for impaired attachment. Parents of a newborn with cleft lip and palate may face challenges in bonding with their child due to the physical appearance, impacting attachment. Promoting bonding between parents and the infant is crucial in this situation. Choice A (Parental role conflict) is incorrect as it focuses on conflicting roles rather than the attachment issue. Choice B (Risk for delayed growth and development) is not the priority issue in this scenario as the immediate concern is establishing a healthy attachment. Choice D (Anticipatory grieving) is not the priority patient problem as it pertains more to the emotional response to an anticipated loss, which is not the primary concern at this stage.
Which type of lipoprotein is associated with decreasing the risk of atherosclerosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is High-density lipoprotein (HDL). HDL is known as 'good' cholesterol because it helps remove cholesterol from the arteries, reducing the risk of atherosclerosis. LDL (choice B) is considered 'bad' cholesterol as it can deposit cholesterol in the arteries, increasing the risk of atherosclerosis. VLDL (choice C) and IDL (choice D) are also associated with increased risk of atherosclerosis rather than decreasing it.
What is the most effective therapy for maintaining remission of acute lymphoblastic leukemia in a child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Long-term chemotherapy. In the case of acute lymphoblastic leukemia, the most effective approach for maintaining remission is long-term chemotherapy, particularly with methotrexate, a chemotherapeutic agent. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes (choice A) is not the primary treatment for leukemia. Nutritional supplements (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but are not the mainstay of leukemia treatment. Blood transfusions (choice D) are used to manage anemia in leukemia but do not address the underlying disease process.
The nurse is triaging clients who have been injured during a tornado. Which client requires immediate action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The middle-aged female with a broken humerus who is unable to follow commands and is crying requires immediate action. These symptoms indicate a possible head injury or severe emotional distress that need urgent attention. Choice A is not as urgent since a minor laceration can be addressed after more critical cases. Choice B, although having a dislocated shoulder, is stable, as the client is calm. Choice D presents with minor injuries that can wait while more critical cases are addressed.
How are type IV hypersensitivity reactions different from all other types (I, II, or III) of hypersensitivity reactions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by T cells and cytokine release, leading to delayed reactions, unlike types I, II, and III, which involve antibodies. Choice A is incorrect because type IV reactions do not involve antigen-antibody complexes. Choice C is incorrect as type IV reactions do not result in immediate allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect as type IV reactions are not the least severe form of hypersensitivity; in fact, they are known to cause significant tissue damage and inflammation.
A child has developed a diaper rash, and the parents are using zinc oxide to treat it. What does the nurse suggest to aid in the removal of the zinc oxide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To completely remove ointment, especially zinc oxide, mineral oil should be used. Mineral oil helps in gently breaking down and lifting the ointment without causing irritation. Mild soap and water (Choice A) may not be effective in completely removing zinc oxide. A cotton ball (Choice B) may not provide the necessary lubrication to aid in the removal process. Alcohol swabs (Choice D) can be harsh on the skin and are not recommended for this purpose.
An adult client is admitted with AIDS and oral candidiasis manifested by several painful mouth ulcers. The nurse delegates oral care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and discusses how to assist the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.' Providing a soft bristle brush helps reduce trauma to the oral mucosa and assists in oral care. Choice A is incorrect because oral care can be safely delegated to UAPs. Choice C is wrong as alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as applying an antifungal cream directly to the mouth ulcers is not the standard treatment for oral candidiasis.
While assessing a client with degenerative joint disease, the nurse observes Heberden's nodes, large prominences on the client's fingers that are reddened. The client reports that the nodes are painful. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Discussing approaches to chronic pain control is the most appropriate action in this situation as it helps the client manage the chronic pain associated with Heberden's nodes. Reviewing the client's dietary intake of high protein foods (Choice A) is not directly related to managing the pain caused by Heberden's nodes. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there are urgent complications. Assessing the client's radial pulses and capillary refill time (Choice D) is important but not the priority in addressing the client's reported pain and the presence of Heberden's nodes.
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to check blood glucose levels frequently. During illness, such as nausea and vomiting, managing blood glucose levels is crucial in clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently helps in adjusting insulin doses appropriately, preventing complications like hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because stopping insulin abruptly can lead to serious complications. Choice B is important but not the most critical in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as high-carbohydrate foods may further affect blood glucose levels negatively.
The nurse provides dietary instructions about iron-rich foods to a client with iron deficiency anemia. Which food selection made by the client indicates a need for additional instructions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Oranges. Oranges are not a rich source of iron. Iron-rich foods include liver, leafy green vegetables, and kidney beans. Oranges are a good source of vitamin C but are not high in iron. Therefore, if the client selects oranges as an iron-rich food, it indicates a need for additional instructions on choosing foods high in iron.
A client who is receiving general anesthesia begins to demonstrate symptoms of malignant hyperthermia. Which intervention should the perioperative nurse prepare to implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure. Malignant hyperthermia is a severe reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. The immediate intervention to manage malignant hyperthermia is to stop the triggering agents, which include anesthesia and surgery. Ensuring patency of an indwelling catheter and measuring intake and output, obtaining specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes, and initiating cooling measures are important interventions but should follow the immediate action of stopping the anesthesia and surgery to address the life-threatening condition of malignant hyperthermia.
What is a causative factor of Hirschsprung disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: The absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in a portion of the colon is a causative factor of Hirschsprung disease. This absence leads to the inability of the affected segment of the colon to relax, causing a functional obstruction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Frequent evacuation of solids, liquid, and gases, excessive peristaltic movement, and one portion of the bowel telescoping into another are not causative factors of Hirschsprung disease.
A young female client with 7 children is having frequent morning headaches, dizziness, and blurred vision. Her BP is 168/104. The client reports that her husband recently lost his job and she is not sleeping well. After administering a STAT dose of an antihypertensive IV med, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using an automated BP machine is crucial to continuously monitor for hypotension after administering an antihypertensive medication. This is essential to prevent a rapid drop in blood pressure that could lead to complications. Measuring urine output hourly to assess for renal perfusion is important but not the most immediate concern in this situation. Requesting pain medication is not relevant to the primary issue of managing blood pressure. Providing a quiet environment with low lighting may be beneficial for the client's overall well-being but is not as critical as monitoring for potential hypotension.
The nurse is evaluating teaching about drug therapy to treat gout. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the use of allopurinol to treat Gout?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Taking allopurinol every day helps to prevent gout flare-ups by reducing uric acid levels.
A client with urolithiasis is preparing for discharge after lithotripsy. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's postoperative discharge instructions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After lithotripsy, monitoring the urinary stream for a decrease in output is essential to identify any potential complications such as urinary retention or obstruction. Reporting pink-tinged hematuria is important, but monitoring the urinary stream for a decrease in output takes precedence as it directly assesses renal function and potential complications. Using an incentive spirometer is not directly related to post-lithotripsy care. Restricting physical activities may be necessary initially but is not the priority compared to monitoring urinary output.
A client with chronic heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which position is most appropriate to improve oxygenation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: High Fowler's position. High Fowler's position is the most appropriate for a client with chronic heart failure experiencing dyspnea and low oxygen saturation. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by maximizing chest expansion and allowing better ventilation. Choice A, supine with legs elevated, may worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Choice C, prone with pillows under the chest, is not suitable for a client experiencing dyspnea as it may further compromise breathing. Choice D, side-lying with head flat, does not facilitate optimal lung expansion and is not the best choice for improving oxygenation in this scenario.
A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.
Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.
Laboratory findings indicate that a client's serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.
The nurse is preparing a client for surgery who was admitted to the emergency center following a motor vehicle collision. The client has an open fracture of the femur and is bleeding moderately from the bone protrusion site.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the priority action is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's medication history. This is important because understanding the client's medication history, especially if they are taking anticoagulants or other medications that could affect bleeding and surgery, is crucial in ensuring safe management of the client's condition. Option A, ensuring the client is NPO and documenting the last meal, is important but not the priority in this situation. Administering pain medication (Option B) should only be done after ensuring the client's safety and stability. Applying a sterile dressing (Option C) is also important but not as critical as informing the healthcare provider of the medication history.
Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement if a postoperative client reports incisional pain and has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a postoperative client reports incisional pain and has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia, the nurse should first compare the client's pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing. This action ensures that the client receives the appropriate medication based on their pain level. Determining the onset of action or asking the client to choose the medication does not guarantee that the right medication is administered according to the pain intensity. Documenting the pain report is important but should not be the first action when deciding which medication to administer.
Which finding should the nurse report immediately for a client receiving a blood transfusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A temperature increase of 1.5°F (0.8°C) during a blood transfusion is a significant finding that can indicate a transfusion reaction, such as a febrile non-hemolytic reaction, which can progress to more severe reactions. It is crucial to report this immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Mild itching and rash (choice A) are common minor reactions to blood transfusions and can be managed appropriately without immediate concern. An increase in heart rate by 10 beats per minute (choice C) is within an acceptable range and may be a normal compensatory response to the transfusion. A slight headache (choice D) is a common complaint and is not typically associated with severe transfusion reactions; thus, it does not require immediate reporting compared to the temperature increase.
The nurse determines that an adult client who is admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.4°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/68 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Taking the temperature using another method is essential in this situation to verify if the low reading is accurate and requires further intervention. The tympanic temperature of 94.6°F may be inaccurate due to various factors such as improper technique or environmental conditions. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the low blood pressure reading alone does not necessitate such frequent monitoring. Raising the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature and blood pressure. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) is a general intervention that may not directly address the specific concern of the low temperature reading.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.