HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. What should be included in the medical management of sickle cell crisis?
- A. Information for the parents including home care
- B. Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management
- C. Pain management and administration of iron supplements
- D. Adequate oxygenation and factor VIII
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management. In managing a sickle cell crisis, it is essential to provide adequate hydration to prevent further sickling of red blood cells and ensure proper pain management to alleviate the severe pain associated with the crisis. While information for parents and home care may be important aspects of overall care, they are not specific to the immediate medical management of a sickle cell crisis. Administration of iron supplements is not recommended during a sickle cell crisis as it can potentially worsen the condition by promoting the production of more sickled red blood cells. Adequate oxygenation is crucial in sickle cell disease, but factor VIII is not typically part of the management of a sickle cell crisis.
2. The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?
- A. The epinephrine given causes nausea and vomiting.
- B. The child is being hydrated with IV fluids.
- C. The child is not hungry.
- D. The child's rapid respirations pose a risk for aspiration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.
3. During the initial assessment of an older male client with obesity and diabetes who develops intermittent claudication, which additional information obtained by the nurse is most significant?
- A. Smokes 1.5 packs of cigarettes daily.
- B. Exercises regularly.
- C. Has a high-fat diet.
- D. Consumes alcohol daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes 1.5 packs of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a significant risk factor for peripheral arterial disease, a condition that can lead to intermittent claudication. The nicotine and other chemicals in cigarettes can damage blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow and increased risk of developing circulation problems. Choices B, C, and D are less significant in the context of intermittent claudication. Regular exercise, a high-fat diet, and daily alcohol consumption may have health implications, but they are not as directly linked to the development of intermittent claudication in the presence of obesity, diabetes, and smoking.
4. The nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who had a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Hoarseness and weak voice
- B. Calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL (2.0 mmol/L)
- C. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- D. Difficulty swallowing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Difficulty swallowing can indicate swelling or hematoma formation, which may compromise the airway and requires immediate intervention. Hoarseness and a weak voice are expected post-thyroidectomy due to manipulation of the laryngeal nerves but do not require immediate intervention. A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and may not require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 110 beats per minute may be elevated due to stress or pain postoperatively, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway.
5. A young client who is being taught how to use an inhaler for symptoms of asthma tells the nurse about the intention to use the inhaler but plans to continue smoking cigarettes. In evaluating the client’s response, what is the best initial action by the nurse?
- A. Explain the risks of smoking with asthma.
- B. Revise the plan of care.
- C. Encourage the client to reduce smoking gradually.
- D. Provide resources for smoking cessation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best initial action by the nurse is to revise the plan of care. This is necessary to address the client's intention to continue smoking and ensure that appropriate support and education are provided. Choice A is not the best initial action as the client is already aware of the risks of smoking with asthma. Choice C might not be effective as the client's intention to continue smoking poses a significant risk to their health. Choice D, providing resources for smoking cessation, is important but revising the plan of care should come first to address the immediate concern.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99