HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. The nurse is assessing a client who has herpes zoster. Which question will allow the nurse to gather further information about this condition?
- A. Has everyone at home already had varicella?
- B. Have the antifungal creams been effective?
- C. Do your family members share combs and brushes?
- D. Do you have any dry patches on your feet and hands?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Has everyone at home already had varicella?' Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. By knowing if others at home had varicella (chickenpox), the nurse can assess the risk of transmission and provide appropriate guidance. Choice B is incorrect because antifungal creams are not effective for herpes zoster, which is a viral infection. Choice C is irrelevant to herpes zoster as it pertains to sharing personal items that may transmit head lice or certain skin infections. Choice D is also unrelated as it focuses on dry patches, not typical manifestations of herpes zoster which presents as a painful rash.
2. A client with AIDS has impaired gas exchange from a respiratory infection. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Elevated temperature
- B. Generalized weakness
- C. Diminished lung sounds
- D. Pain when swallowing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with AIDS and impaired gas exchange from a respiratory infection, pain when swallowing can indicate esophageal involvement, such as esophagitis or an esophageal infection like candidiasis. These conditions can significantly impact the client's ability to take in nutrition and medications, leading to complications like dehydration and malnutrition. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to address the underlying cause and prevent further complications. Elevated temperature (choice A) may indicate infection but does not directly address the impaired gas exchange. Generalized weakness (choice B) and diminished lung sounds (choice C) are concerning but do not directly relate to the immediate need for intervention in the context of esophageal involvement in a client with impaired gas exchange.
3. During the initial assessment of an older male client with obesity and diabetes who develops intermittent claudication, which additional information obtained by the nurse is most significant?
- A. Smokes 1.5 packs of cigarettes daily.
- B. Exercises regularly.
- C. Has a high-fat diet.
- D. Consumes alcohol daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes 1.5 packs of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a significant risk factor for peripheral arterial disease, a condition that can lead to intermittent claudication. The nicotine and other chemicals in cigarettes can damage blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow and increased risk of developing circulation problems. Choices B, C, and D are less significant in the context of intermittent claudication. Regular exercise, a high-fat diet, and daily alcohol consumption may have health implications, but they are not as directly linked to the development of intermittent claudication in the presence of obesity, diabetes, and smoking.
4. What is a causative factor of Hirschsprung disease?
- A. Frequent evacuation of solids, liquid, and gases
- B. Excessive peristaltic movement
- C. The absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in a portion of the colon
- D. One portion of the bowel telescoping into another
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in a portion of the colon is a causative factor of Hirschsprung disease. This absence leads to the inability of the affected segment of the colon to relax, causing a functional obstruction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Frequent evacuation of solids, liquid, and gases, excessive peristaltic movement, and one portion of the bowel telescoping into another are not causative factors of Hirschsprung disease.
5. The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?
- A. The epinephrine given causes nausea and vomiting.
- B. The child is being hydrated with IV fluids.
- C. The child is not hungry.
- D. The child's rapid respirations pose a risk for aspiration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.
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