HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?
- A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
- B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
- C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
- D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.
2. The nurse is evaluating teaching about drug therapy to treat gout. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the use of allopurinol to treat Gout?
- A. I need to take the prescribed amount of the drug to get rid of my gout.
- B. I need to take this drug every day to keep from having any flare-ups.
- C. I should take this drug when I have gout attacks to reduce symptoms.
- D. The pain and swelling can be controlled by taking this drug every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Taking allopurinol every day helps to prevent gout flare-ups by reducing uric acid levels.
3. A young client who is being taught how to use an inhaler for symptoms of asthma tells the nurse about the intention to use the inhaler but plans to continue smoking cigarettes. In evaluating the client’s response, what is the best initial action by the nurse?
- A. Explain the risks of smoking with asthma.
- B. Revise the plan of care.
- C. Encourage the client to reduce smoking gradually.
- D. Provide resources for smoking cessation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best initial action by the nurse is to revise the plan of care. This is necessary to address the client's intention to continue smoking and ensure that appropriate support and education are provided. Choice A is not the best initial action as the client is already aware of the risks of smoking with asthma. Choice C might not be effective as the client's intention to continue smoking poses a significant risk to their health. Choice D, providing resources for smoking cessation, is important but revising the plan of care should come first to address the immediate concern.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What do these symptoms indicate?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
- C. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
- D. Insulin shock
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are classic signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs due to a combination of hyperglycemia and ketone production. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating, which are different from the symptoms described in the scenario. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) (Choice C) typically presents with severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and altered mental status, rather than the triad of symptoms mentioned. Insulin shock (Choice D) refers to a severe hypoglycemic reaction due to excessive insulin, manifesting with confusion, sweating, and rapid heartbeat, not the symptoms seen in the client with diabetes mellitus described in this scenario.
5. The nurse prepares a teaching plan for an adult client with metabolic syndrome. Which findings should the nurse address to help the client reduce the risk for diabetes mellitus and vascular disease? (Select all that apply)
- A. Abdominal obesity
- B. Blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg
- C. Increased triglyceride levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the listed factors - abdominal obesity, high blood pressure, and increased triglyceride levels - are components of metabolic syndrome. Addressing these findings is crucial to help reduce the client's risk for developing diabetes mellitus and vascular disease. Abdominal obesity is a key feature of metabolic syndrome, high blood pressure (150/96 mmHg) is a risk factor, and increased triglyceride levels are also indicative of the syndrome. Educating the client on lifestyle modifications, such as healthy eating habits, regular physical activity, and monitoring these parameters, is essential in managing metabolic syndrome and preventing associated complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct, making choice D the correct answer.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99