HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?
- A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
- B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
- C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
- D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.
2. The parents of a child who has had a myringotomy are instructed by the nurse to place the child in which position?
- A. Supine
- B. On the affected side
- C. On the unaffected side
- D. In Trendelenburg's position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placing the child on the affected side after a myringotomy facilitates ear drainage. This position helps prevent accumulation of fluids in the ear canal, aiding in the healing process. Placing the child in the supine position (Choice A) or on the unaffected side (Choice C) may not be as effective in promoting drainage. The Trendelenburg's position (Choice D) with the head lower than the body is used for conditions requiring increased venous return, not for post-myringotomy care.
3. A client who is experiencing respiratory distress is admitted with respiratory acidosis. Which pathophysiological process supports the client’s respiratory acidosis?
- A. Low oxygen levels are present in the blood.
- B. High levels of carbon dioxide have accumulated in the blood.
- C. Increased bicarbonate levels are causing alkalosis.
- D. Respiratory rate is increased, causing hyperventilation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood lead to respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation. The correct answer is B. In respiratory acidosis, the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood occurs due to inadequate exhalation, leading to acidosis. Choice A is incorrect as low oxygen levels are related to hypoxemia, not respiratory acidosis. Choice C is incorrect as increased bicarbonate levels would lead to alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D is incorrect as an increased respiratory rate causing hyperventilation would actually help decrease carbon dioxide levels, not lead to respiratory acidosis.
4. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?
- A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
- B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
- C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
- D. The medication has few side effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.
5. Based on this strip, what is the interpretation of this rhythm?
- A. Atrial fibrillation.
- B. Ventricular tachycardia.
- C. Normal sinus rhythm.
- D. Second-degree heart block.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Normal sinus rhythm. Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by a regular rhythm, normal P waves, and a consistent PR interval. In this context, the strip likely shows a normal ECG pattern with these characteristics, indicating a healthy heart rhythm. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Atrial fibrillation would show an irregularly irregular rhythm with no discernible P waves. Ventricular tachycardia would display wide QRS complexes and a fast heart rate. Second-degree heart block would exhibit intermittent dropped QRS complexes.
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