Nursing Elites

1. Within several days of hospitalization, a client is repeatedly washing the top of the same table. Which initial intervention is best for the nurse to implement to help the client cope with anxiety related to this behavior?

• A. Administer a prescribed PRN antianxiety medication.
• B. Assist the client in identifying stimuli that precipitate the ritualistic activity.
• C. Allow time for the ritualistic behavior, then redirect the client to other activities.
• D. Teach the client relaxation and thought-stopping techniques.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initially, the nurse should allow time for the ritualistic behavior (C) to prevent anxiety. Administering an antianxiety medication (A) may help reduce the client's anxiety temporarily but will not address the underlying issue of ineffective coping mechanisms leading to the behavior. While assisting the client in identifying triggers (B) is important for long-term therapy, the immediate focus should be on managing the behavior. Teaching relaxation and thought-stopping techniques (D) is beneficial but might be more effective once the client is more stable and receptive to learning new coping strategies.

2. A female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is describing her obsessions and compulsions and asks the nurse why these make her feel safer. What information should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? (select one that does not apply.)

• A. Compulsions relieve anxiety
• B. Anxiety is the key reason for OCD
• C. Obsessions cause compulsions
• D. Obsessive thoughts are linked to levels of neurochemicals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Obsessions do not cause compulsions; rather, obsessions are intrusive, unwanted thoughts, images, or urges that trigger intensely distressing feelings, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rules that must be applied rigidly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because compulsions are behaviors or mental acts aimed at reducing distress or preventing a dreaded event or situation. Choice B is incorrect because while anxiety is often a significant component of OCD, it is not the only reason for the disorder. Choice D is incorrect because obsessive thoughts are not solely linked to levels of neurochemicals but are more complex and multifactorial.

3. A client's medication sheet contains a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). To ensure safe administration of the medication, a nurse would administer the dose:

• A. On an empty stomach
• B. At the same time each evening
• C. Evenly spaced around the clock
• D. As needed when the client complains of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each evening.' Sertraline should be administered at the same time each evening to maintain steady drug levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as sertraline does not need to be spaced around the clock. Choice D is incorrect as sertraline is a scheduled medication and should not be taken on an as-needed basis for complaints of depression.

4. An anxious client expressing a fear of people and open places is admitted to the psychiatric unit. What is the most effective way for the nurse to assist this client?

• A. Plan an outing within the second week of admission.
• B. Distract the client whenever they express discomfort about being with others.
• C. Confront the client's fears and discuss the possible causes of these fears.
• D. Accompany the client outside for an increasing amount of time each day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective way to assist a client with a fear of people and open places is through gradual desensitization by controlled exposure to the situation which is feared (D). This method helps the client confront their fears in a safe and supportive manner, allowing them to gradually build confidence and reduce anxiety. Planning an outing within the second week of admission (A) may be too soon and overwhelming for the client. Distracting the client whenever they express discomfort (B) does not address the underlying issue and may promote denial. Confronting the client's fears and discussing possible causes (C) could be too aggressive initially and may not be well-tolerated by the client.

5. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The client asks, 'Why do I have to take medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. The medication will help stabilize your mood and prevent mood swings.
• B. You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.
• C. The medication will help you feel better and more in control of your emotions.
• D. The medication is needed to control your symptoms and help you function better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response by the nurse is to explain that the medication will help stabilize the client's mood and prevent mood swings. This response provides the client with a clear understanding of how the medication works in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is not the best response as it may cause unnecessary worry about lifelong medication dependence. Choice C is not as specific in addressing the purpose of the medication for bipolar disorder. Choice D is not as focused on the effect of the medication on mood stabilization, which is crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

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