HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank
1. The following are functions of the Provincial Nurse Supervisor except:
- A. interpreting policies, guidelines, and SDP to nursing and midwifery staff of the province
- B. assessing training needs and planning staff development programs for nursing and midwifery staff
- C. participating in planning, developing, and evaluating OJT for nurses and midwives conducted by the department
- D. collecting, consolidating, analyzing, and interpreting health records and reports and making recommendations as needed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Collecting, consolidating, analyzing, and interpreting health records is not a primary function of a Provincial Nurse Supervisor. The primary functions of a Provincial Nurse Supervisor include interpreting policies, guidelines, and SDP to nursing and midwifery staff, assessing training needs, planning staff development programs, and participating in planning, developing, and evaluating OJT for nurses and midwives. While health records may be accessed for specific purposes, the core responsibilities of a Provincial Nurse Supervisor focus on staff management and development rather than direct involvement in health record analysis.
2. Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?
- A. a 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children
- B. a 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing
- C. a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes
- D. a 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because homeless individuals who are alcoholics and smoke have a higher risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors like poor living conditions, compromised immune systems, and increased exposure to infections. Choice A is less likely as the teacher's profession, while involving contact with children, may not pose as high a risk as the factors in choice C. Choice B may have respiratory issues but does not have the same risk factors as choice C. Choice D, the aerobics instructor, may have a healthy lifestyle but skipping meals and a restrictive diet do not directly correlate with a higher risk of pneumonia compared to the risk factors in choice C.
3. Which of the following statements about breastfeeding is correct?
- A. Breastfeeding within 30 minutes after birth can stimulate breastmilk production
- B. Breastmilk should be started 24 hours after delivery
- C. Breastmilk given exclusively for the first 4 to 6 months of life helps avoid introduction of infection
- D. Breastfeeding should be done as often as the baby wants
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement about breastfeeding is that breastmilk given exclusively for the first 4 to 6 months of life helps avoid the introduction of infection. This practice is recommended by health experts for optimal infant health. Choice A is incorrect because breastfeeding should ideally start within the first hour after birth to stimulate breastmilk production. Choice B is incorrect because breastmilk should be initiated as soon as possible after delivery, not after 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect because while feeding on demand is generally encouraged, it should also follow a schedule to ensure adequate nutrition and growth for the baby.
4. A pre-term baby develops nasal flaring, cyanosis, and diminished breath sounds on one side. The provider's diagnosis is spontaneous pneumothorax. Which procedure should the nurse prepare for first?
- A. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Insertion of a chest tube
- C. Oxygen therapy
- D. Assisted ventilation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insertion of a chest tube. In a case of spontaneous pneumothorax, the primary intervention is to insert a chest tube. This procedure allows the trapped air to escape from the pleural space, relieving pressure and enabling the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial interventions for spontaneous pneumothorax. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is indicated for cardiac arrest, oxygen therapy may provide supportive care but does not address the underlying issue of trapped air in the pleural space, and assisted ventilation may be needed later but is not the first-line treatment for a pneumothorax.
5. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child with a greenstick fracture. In explaining this type of fracture to the parents, the best response by the nurse should be that
- A. A child's bone is more flexible and can be bent 45 degrees before breaking
- B. Bones of children are more porous than adults and often have incomplete breaks
- C. Compression of porous bones produces a buckle or torus type break
- D. Bone fragments often remain attached by a periosteal hinge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Greenstick fractures are common in children because their bones are softer and more porous than adult bones, leading to incomplete breaks when force is applied. Choice A is incorrect as greenstick fractures are not due to bone flexibility but rather the porous nature of children's bones. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a buckle or torus type break, which is not characteristic of a greenstick fracture. Choice D is incorrect as greenstick fractures do not involve bone fragments remaining attached by a periosteal hinge.
Similar Questions

Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99