Free HESI LPN Community Health Nursing practice for Community Health HESI Test Bank (HESI LPN). Answer 57 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mod
You organize community groups to participate in community activities. You can BEST motivate participation in the community health development program by:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Allowing people to exercise decision-making is the best way to motivate participation in community activities. By involving the community in decision-making processes, you empower them and make them feel valued, which can lead to increased engagement and commitment. Choices A, B, and D do not foster a sense of ownership and empowerment among the community members, which are crucial for sustainable participation in community programs.
What is the term for a learning process whereby knowledge, attitudes, and practice of people are changed to improve the health status of individuals, families, or communities?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Health education is the correct term for the learning process that involves changing knowledge, attitudes, and practices to enhance health status. Choice A, 'Motivating,' is incorrect as it refers to inspiring action rather than the educational aspect. Choice B, 'Counseling,' focuses on providing guidance and support rather than specifically targeting knowledge and practice changes. Choice C, 'Disease prevention,' is related to strategies aimed at avoiding the occurrence of illnesses rather than the broader concept of educating for overall health improvement.
A client with a fractured femur is in Buck's traction. The nurse should assess for which of the following complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Foot drop is a potential complication of prolonged immobility and improper positioning in traction. In Buck's traction, the lower extremity is suspended to immobilize and align the fractured femur. Prolonged suspension of the leg in traction can lead to nerve damage, specifically to the common peroneal nerve, resulting in foot drop. Urinary retention, constipation, and muscle spasms are not directly associated with Buck's traction and a fractured femur.
What does the term 'social determinants of health' refer to?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The term 'social determinants of health' refers to the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age. This includes factors like socioeconomic status, education, physical environment, employment, and social support networks. These factors have a significant impact on health outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because genetic predispositions, lifestyle choices, and access to medical care, although important, are not encompassed by the term 'social determinants of health.'
The Philippine Family Program seeks to improve and maintain which of the following life-saving measures?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, all of the above. The Philippine Family Program aims to enhance and sustain proper spacing of pregnancies, proper timing of pregnancies, and reducing the number of pregnancies. These measures are essential for promoting maternal and child health, preventing complications, and ensuring better outcomes. Choices A, B, and C are all part of the comprehensive approach taken by the program to safeguard the well-being of families and contribute to overall public health.
Which topic should the nurse include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct topic that the nurse should include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents is suicide risks and prevention. Adolescents are particularly vulnerable to mental health issues, including suicidal ideation. Educating them about suicide risks and prevention strategies is crucial for early intervention and support. Choices A, B, and D are important topics, but when considering primary prevention for adolescents, addressing suicide risks and prevention takes precedence due to its immediate life-saving implications.
Diabetes has become a major health problem. How can healthcare professionals contribute to reducing the incidence of diabetes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Raising community awareness about diabetes prevention is an effective way to reduce the incidence of diabetes. By educating the public about healthy lifestyle choices, risk factors, and preventive measures, healthcare professionals can empower individuals to make informed decisions regarding their health. Choice A is not as proactive as raising awareness in the community. While screening is important, prevention through awareness can have a broader impact. Choice B is specific to a particular act and may not apply universally. Choice C, establishing support groups, is beneficial for those already affected by diabetes but may not directly reduce the incidence of the disease.
Which of the following is used to monitor specific groups eligible for a particular DOH program?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Target Client list. The Target Client list is specifically designed to monitor groups that are eligible for a particular DOH program. It helps in identifying and tracking individuals or populations that qualify for the said program. Choice A, Family treatment record, is incorrect because it pertains to the medical history and treatment information of a particular family, not eligibility monitoring. Choice C, Reporting forms, is incorrect as they are used for documenting and submitting information, not for monitoring eligibility. Choice D, Output record, is also incorrect as it refers to the results or outcomes produced by a system, not for monitoring eligibility.
In addition to disturbances in mental awareness and orientation, a client with cognitive impairment is also likely to show loss of ability in
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Individuals with cognitive impairment often experience difficulties in learning new information, creative thinking, and making sound judgments. Loss of ability in hearing, speech, and sight (Choice A) is more closely related to sensory impairments rather than cognitive impairment. Endurance, strength, and mobility (Choice B) are more associated with physical capabilities rather than cognitive functions. Balance, flexibility, and coordination (Choice D) are related to motor skills and physical coordination, not cognitive impairment.
Under which level of primary health care workers does a rural sanitary inspector fall?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Rural sanitary inspectors are classified as intermediate level health workers. They are not categorized under village health workers or barangay health workers. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse with expertise in health promotion, illness and injury prevention, risk reduction, and adult learning principles.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D: health promotion specialist.' This title aligns with the described expertise in health promotion, illness and injury prevention, and risk reduction. A health promotion specialist focuses on promoting health and preventing illnesses, which directly corresponds to the skills mentioned in the job description. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'case manager' typically focuses on coordinating patient care, 'health educator' specifically emphasizes educating individuals on health topics, and a 'nurse consultant' offers expert advice and support in the nursing field but may not specialize in health promotion and risk reduction as required in this job description.
While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.
What action is best for the community health nurse to take if the nurse suspects that an infant is being physically abused?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a community health nurse suspects that an infant is being physically abused, the best course of action is to follow agency protocols to report the suspected abuse. This is essential to ensure that the appropriate authorities are informed, and proper interventions can be initiated. Reporting suspicions to the local child abuse reporting hotline (Choice B) can be a part of the agency protocols but may not cover all necessary steps. Educating the child's caregivers about growth and development (Choice C) is not appropriate in cases of suspected abuse, as the immediate focus should be on the safety and well-being of the infant. Calling the police department to have the child removed from the home (Choice D) is not the primary role of the nurse; the proper authorities should handle the removal process after an investigation.
When caring for a child with Reye's Syndrome, which action should the nurse give the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the level of consciousness is crucial when caring for a child with Reye's Syndrome. Changes in neurological status can indicate deterioration of the condition, necessitating immediate medical attention. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the highest priority compared to assessing the child's level of consciousness. Providing good skin care and assisting with range of motion are also important aspects of care but take a lower priority than assessing the child's neurological status in this critical condition.
The nurse is caring for a child who has just returned from surgery following a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Observing swallowing patterns is crucial post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy to detect signs of bleeding. Offering ice chips instead of ice cream helps prevent throat irritation. Placing the child in a semi-Fowler's position promotes airway patency and reduces the risk of aspiration. Encouraging the child to drink from a cup instead of a straw minimizes the risk of dislodging the surgical site.
An example of the continuum health model of health and wellness would be:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The continuum health model emphasizes ongoing health practices based on past behaviors. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a more binary approach to health. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on alternative therapies rather than the continuity of health practices.
At a nursing staff meeting, there is a discussion of perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. As a follow-up, what should the nurse manager do initially?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Facilitating creative thinking on staffing is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse manager in addressing perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. By encouraging creative thinking, the manager promotes innovative solutions and fosters a sense of ownership and collaboration among staff members. Choices A, B, and C are not the best initial steps in this situation. Allowing staff to change assignments may not address the underlying issues, clarifying reasons for current assignments may not resolve perceived inequities, and helping staff see the complexity of issues may not lead to actionable solutions.
What does the infant mortality rate measure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The infant mortality rate measures the number of deaths occurring before 1 year old per 1000 live births. This is a crucial indicator of a population's health status and access to healthcare for infants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the infant mortality rate specifically focuses on deaths within the first year of life, not the entire population or different age ranges.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with right lower lobe (RLL) pneumonia. On assessment, the nurse notes crackles over the RLL. The client has significant pleuritic pain and is unable to take in a deep breath in order to cough effectively.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's inability to effectively clear the airway due to pain and sputum production hinders the cough mechanism, making 'Ineffective airway clearance' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. Although impaired gas exchange may occur due to the pneumonia, the immediate issue is the inability to clear the airway. 'Ineffective breathing pattern' does not address the specific issue of airway clearance. 'Anxiety' is not the priority when the focus should be on the physical complications of pneumonia.
A 4-month-old child taking digoxin (Lanoxin) has a blood pressure of 92/78; resting pulse of 78; respirations 28, and a potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L. The client is irritable and has vomited twice since the morning dose of digoxin. Which finding is most indicative of digoxin toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) is a key sign of digoxin toxicity. In this scenario, the child's symptoms of irritability, vomiting, along with the resting pulse of 78 despite being on digoxin, suggest an impending bradycardia due to digoxin toxicity. Lethargy can also be a sign, but in this case, the child is irritable rather than lethargic. Vomiting, though a symptom, is not as specific to digoxin toxicity as bradycardia. Irritability, while present, is not the most indicative finding of digoxin toxicity compared to bradycardia.
The new graduate nurse interviews for a position in a nursing department of a large health care agency, described by the interviewer as having shared governance. Which of these statements best illustrates the shared governance model?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because shared governance involves nurses and other staff sharing responsibility for decisions related to patient care and outcomes, promoting collaborative practice and shared accountability. Choice A is incorrect as shared governance includes active participation of frontline staff, not just an appointed board. Choice C is incorrect because shared governance goes beyond just discussing issues to actively sharing responsibility for decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as shared governance encourages nurses to have a significant role in decision-making rather than being supervised by non-nurse managers.
In a long term rehabilitation care unit a client with spinal cord injury complains of a pounding headache. The client is sitting in a wheelchair watching television in the assigned room. Further assessment by the nurse reveals excessive sweating, a splotchy rash, pilomotor erection, facial flushing, congested nasal passages and a heart rate of 50. The nurse should do which action next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
These symptoms suggest autonomic dysreflexia, often triggered by bladder distention.
What is the measure of the number of new cases of a disease in a specific population during a certain time period called?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, Incidence. Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disease in a specific population during a certain time period. Prevalence (choice A) refers to the total number of cases of a disease in a population at a specific point in time. Mortality rate (choice C) is the measure of the number of deaths in a particular population due to a specific cause. Morbidity rate (choice D) is a broader term that encompasses the incidence and prevalence of a disease in a population.
The healthcare professional enters the room as a 3-year-old is having a generalized seizure. Which intervention should the healthcare professional do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing the child on the side is the priority intervention during a generalized seizure as it helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration. Clearing the area of any hazards is important but should come after ensuring the child's safety. Restraining the child is not recommended during a seizure as it can lead to injury. Giving the prescribed anticonvulsant is important but should not be the first action during an ongoing seizure.
A client with terminal cancer is experiencing severe pain. The nurse plans to implement which of the following pain management strategies?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering analgesics on a fixed schedule is the most appropriate pain management strategy for a client with terminal cancer experiencing severe pain. This approach ensures consistent pain control and helps prevent breakthrough pain. Administering analgesics only when the client requests (Choice B) may lead to uncontrolled pain as the client may delay requesting medication until the pain becomes unbearable. Using non-pharmacological methods only (Choice C) may not provide adequate pain relief for a client experiencing severe pain. Increasing the dose of analgesics when the client complains of pain (Choice D) may result in inconsistent pain control and could lead to potential overdose or adverse effects.
A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculosis (TB) test to a client. Which of the following is the correct method for administering this test?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct method for administering a tuberculosis (TB) test is through an intradermal injection on the forearm. This technique allows for the proper administration of the test under the skin to assess the body's response to the TB antigen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the TB test specifically requires an intradermal injection, not subcutaneous, intramuscular, or oral administration.
In evaluating your client's level of wellness, which of the following indicators can you see?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When evaluating a client's level of wellness, indicators such as appropriate nutritional level, sense of personal security, and acceptance of oneself and one's limitations are crucial. Option C, 'Acceptance of oneself and one's limitations,' directly relates to mental wellness and self-awareness, making it a key indicator of overall well-being. Options A, B, and D are not as directly tied to the psychological and emotional aspects of wellness, making them less relevant indicators in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
Which of the following is a voluntary organization?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The American Diabetes Association (ADA) is a voluntary organization that relies on voluntary contributions and membership fees. NIH (National Institutes of Health), FDA (Food and Drug Administration), and CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) are governmental agencies and not voluntary organizations. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
The nurse understands that the primary goal of the occupational health program is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary goal of an occupational health program is to provide curative care to workers/employees. This includes preventing and treating work-related illnesses and injuries, promoting workplace safety, and ensuring the well-being of employees in their work environment. Choice B, birth and death rates, is not directly related to the primary goal of an occupational health program. Choice C, disease trends, may be a focus of public health programs but is not the primary goal of an occupational health program. Choice D, social environmental conditions, while important for overall health, is not the primary goal of an occupational health program which is more focused on the health and safety of workers in their work settings.
A community health nurse is developing a program to decrease the incidence of Type 2 diabetes in the community. Which of the following interventions should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: conducting exercise classes at the community center. Regular physical activity plays a crucial role in preventing Type 2 diabetes by helping to maintain a healthy weight, improve insulin sensitivity, and regulate blood sugar levels. Distributing brochures (choice A) may raise awareness but might not lead to significant behavior change. Providing free glucose monitors (choice C) focuses on monitoring rather than prevention. Offering dietary counseling sessions (choice D) is important but focusing solely on diet may not address the comprehensive approach needed to prevent Type 2 diabetes.
The nurse is teaching a 27-year-old client with asthma about the management of their therapeutic regimen. Which statement would indicate the need for additional instruction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Exercise, especially aerobic activities, is beneficial for clients with asthma as long as it is well-managed. Limiting exercise is not generally recommended unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider, indicating a need for further instruction in this case. Monitoring peak flow, contacting the clinic for increased medication use, and learning stress reduction techniques are all appropriate self-management strategies for asthma, indicating good understanding by the client.
Which of the following characteristics apply to 2 to 3-year-old children?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. During the age of 2 to 3 years old, children tend to eat very small, nutritious meals throughout the day rather than having three large meals. This behavior is typical for this age group as their appetites fluctuate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while children of this age may start to prefer feeding themselves and begin using a toothbrush with assistance, they typically do not speak in longer sentences at this stage.
A client with asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant effect on the heart. It acts as a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, leading to increased heart rate. Hypoglycemia (choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is also not typically associated with albuterol use. Hypotension (choice D) is less likely to occur as albuterol usually causes tachycardia rather than hypotension.
Refers to the nurses in the local/national health departments or public schools:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct term for nurses working in local/national health departments or public schools is 'public health nurse.' This term specifically refers to individual nurses in those settings. Choice A, 'Public health nursing,' is a broader term that refers to the field of nursing focused on improving community health. Choices C and D, 'Registered midwives' and 'Registered nurses,' do not specifically indicate the nurses working in local/national health departments or public schools, making them incorrect.
A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.
A unit of Girl Scouts went hiking over Mt. Makiling. While resting, scout Jaymee, 14 years of age, complained of a sudden moderately bearable toothache. In checking their first-aid kit, they found none of mefenamic acid, BUT they luckily chanced upon a home that uses alternative pain-relieving medicinal plants. What would this plant be?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Bawang (garlic), which is traditionally used for its pain-relieving properties. While Lagundi, Sambong, and Tsaang gubat are also medicinal plants with various health benefits, they are not specifically known for their pain-relieving properties like garlic.
Following-up Mrs. Luy, G5P4, you notice her eldest son is underweight and her youngest daughter looks thin and pale. Mrs. Luy's present pregnancy would mean another additional member of the family. This can be considered as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'health threat.' The new pregnancy poses a health threat due to the potential strain on resources and the existing issues with the children, such as underweight and being pale. Choice A is incorrect as it does not fully capture the potential risks associated with the new pregnancy. Choice B is also incorrect as it includes 'health deficit,' which is not explicitly mentioned in the scenario. Choice D, 'foreseeable crisis,' is not the most fitting description of the situation presented.
Which of the following measures the frequency of new cases of the phenomenon during a given period of time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, incidence rate. Incidence rate measures the frequency of new cases of a phenomenon, providing important information about the risk of developing the condition. Prevalence rate (choice A) reflects both old and new cases, proportionate mortality rate (choice B) is the proportion of deaths due to a specific cause, and case fatality rate (choice C) measures the proportion of deaths among confirmed cases, not just new cases.
A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.
The nurse is caring for a client on mechanical ventilation. When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse will avoid hypoxia by
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hyperoxygenating the client before and after suctioning helps prevent hypoxia by ensuring adequate oxygen levels during the procedure, which briefly interrupts the client's normal breathing pattern. Choice A is incorrect because inserting a fenestrated catheter with a whistle tip without suction would not prevent hypoxia. Choice B is incorrect as completing the suction pass in 30 seconds with a pressure of 150 mm Hg may lead to hypoxia. Choice D is incorrect as minimizing the suction pass to 60 seconds may not provide enough time for effective suctioning and could lead to hypoxia.
The nurse is evaluating the growth and development of a toddler with AIDS. The nurse would anticipate finding that the child has
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Children with AIDS often experience delays in achieving developmental milestones, affecting their overall growth and development. This delay can impact various areas of development, not limited to a specific aspect like musculoskeletal or speech development. While some children may achieve milestones at varying rates (choice A), the general trend is a delay in multiple milestones (choice D). Musculoskeletal development (choice B) and speech development (choice C) may be affected but are not as comprehensive as the delay in most developmental milestones.
Environmental sanitation is the primary problem in community Y. As a stranger to the health unit, one of the major strategies in your plan is the improvement of the environmental health conditions of the community. To indicate this, which of the following would you do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, requesting mayors to create a task force is the most effective strategy to improve environmental health conditions in the community. Engaging with local government officials ensures the allocation of resources, coordination of efforts, and the implementation of sustainable solutions. While meeting with youth officials, parents' group leaders, religious and educational leaders are important, involving mayors in creating a task force will lead to broader community involvement and support. Informing local announcers about the project, although helpful for awareness, is not as impactful as engaging with local authorities for tangible change.
Which level of care serves as a referral center for primary health facilities?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Secondary level health care is the correct answer as it serves as a referral center for primary health facilities. Primary health care refers to basic health services provided in the community setting. Tertiary level care involves specialized services like hospitals with advanced medical equipment and expertise. Intermediate level care is not a standard term in the hierarchy of health care services.
A community health nurse is conducting a neighborhood discussion group about disaster planning. What information regarding transmission of anthrax should the nurse provide to the group?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct information the nurse should provide is that anthrax infection occurs when spores enter a host. Choice B is incorrect as mature anthrax bacteria do not live dormant on inanimate objects. Choice C is incorrect as anthrax spores can survive for extended periods outside a living host. Choice D is incorrect as anthrax is not transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.
The home health care agency can expect to obtain Medicare reimbursement for which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because wound care for a postoperative infection qualifies for Medicare reimbursement. Medicare typically covers skilled nursing care, like wound care, required due to a postoperative infection. Choices A, B, and D involve assessments, teaching, and evaluation, which may not always be eligible for Medicare reimbursement unless they are directly related to skilled nursing care for a specific medical condition.
Prior to initiating a community health program targeting teenage smoking, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important information for the nurse to obtain before initiating a community health program targeting teenage smoking is the incidence of smoking among the teenage population in the community. Understanding the prevalence of smoking will help in designing effective intervention strategies. Choice B about funding, while important, is secondary to understanding the scope of the issue. Choice C, the target objectives from Healthy People 2020, may provide guidance but are not as crucial as knowing the local prevalence. Choice D, satisfaction data from previous programs, does not provide essential information for planning a new program.
Which of the following BEST describes the strategies to address the nutrition problems of Filipinos related to non-communicable diseases?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
While considering food preferences of family members is important in promoting adherence to a healthy diet, the best strategies to address nutrition problems related to non-communicable diseases should focus on evidence-based approaches like aiming for an ideal body weight, building healthy nutrition-related practices, and choosing food wisely to improve overall health outcomes.
A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high glucose content, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels, resulting in hyperglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial in clients receiving TPN to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because TPN is more likely to cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, or hyponatremia.
The nurse should consider the following when assessing the child for chest indrawing EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Chest indrawing may not always be present and can vary with the child's activity level, so it should not be expected to be present at all times. Choice B is correct because the lower chest wall should not go in when the child breathes in. Choice C is correct as the lower chest should go in when the child breathes in, indicating chest indrawing. Choice D is correct as a calm child makes it easier to assess chest indrawing, but the absence of chest indrawing does not mean the child is not calm.
A home health nurse is at the home of a client with diabetes and arthritis. The client has difficulty drawing up insulin. It would be most appropriate for the nurse to refer the client to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An occupational therapist is the most appropriate professional to refer the client to in this situation. Occupational therapists can provide assistance with techniques and tools to help the client manage insulin administration despite arthritis. Referring the client to a social worker (Choice A) may not directly address the client's difficulty with insulin. While physical therapists (Choice C) focus on mobility and strength, they may not specialize in techniques for insulin administration. Referring the client to another client with diabetes (Choice D) is not a professional or appropriate solution to address the client's difficulty.
The following statements pertain to devolution as mandated by the local government code. Which of these is not correct?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The Department of Health (DOH) retains regulatory functions for inspecting food establishments, and it is not transferred to local government units. Choices A, B, and C are correct because devolution allows people to participate in policymaking for healthcare, enhances community life quality, and empowers the barangay to set criteria for healthcare service prioritization.
The nurse is planning care for a client with increased intracranial pressure. The best position for this client is
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Semi-Fowler's. This position helps to reduce intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage from the head while maintaining adequate oxygenation. Option A, Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves placing the patient with the head lower than the body, which can increase intracranial pressure. Option B, Prone position, is also incorrect as it involves lying on the stomach, which can further elevate intracranial pressure. Option D, Side-lying with head flat, does not provide the same benefits as the Semi-Fowler's position in terms of promoting venous drainage and maintaining oxygenation in a client with increased intracranial pressure.
The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a community health program aimed at reducing teen pregnancy rates. Which outcome indicates the program was successful?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: greater use of contraception among teens. This outcome indicates successful prevention of pregnancies by demonstrating that teens are taking proactive steps to avoid unintended pregnancies. Increased attendance at health education classes (choice A) may show improved knowledge but does not directly measure the prevention of pregnancies. While a decreased number of repeat pregnancies among teens (choice B) is positive, it does not necessarily indicate prevention of initial pregnancies. A higher number of teens seeking prenatal care (choice C) is important for maternal and fetal health but does not directly reflect the prevention of teen pregnancies.
Which of the following qualifications is not required for a Nurse Supervisor at the provincial level?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because the qualifications for a Nurse Supervisor at the provincial level include a BSN, RN, and a Master's in public health, along with a minimum of 5 years of experience in public health. Choice B, which states 'at least 3 years experience,' is incorrect as the requirement is for at least 5 years of experience in public health. Choices A, C, and D are necessary qualifications for a Nurse Supervisor at the provincial level based on the provided information.
A 15-year-old client with a lengthy confining illness is at risk for altered growth and development of which task?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A 15-year-old client with a lengthy confining illness is at risk for altered growth and development of the task of dependence. Prolonged illness and confinement can lead to the development of dependence as the individual may become reliant on others for their care and needs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect in this context. Loss of control, insecurity, and lack of trust are important factors to consider but are not directly related to the altered growth and development task of dependence due to illness and confinement.
A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, "I will die of cancer now that I have this disease." And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.
True or False: Vertical transmission is the disease-causing agent (pathogen) from mother to baby during the period immediately before and after birth.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vertical transmission is the transfer of a disease-causing agent (pathogen) from mother to baby during the period immediately before and after birth. This process can lead to the baby acquiring infections or diseases from the mother. Choice A is correct because it accurately describes vertical transmission. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the definition of vertical transmission.
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Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.