Free HESI LPN Nursing Leadership and Management practice for Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank (HESI LPN). Answer 49 nursing exam-style questions with ra
Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.
A nurse is caring for a client who is unconscious and whose partner is their health care surrogate. The partner wishes to discontinue the client's feeding tube, but another family member tells the nurse that they want the client to continue receiving treatment. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is D because the health care surrogate, as designated by the client, has the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the client when they are unable to do so. This authority includes decisions about treatment continuation or withdrawal. Option A is incorrect as the family member's wishes do not override the legal authority of the health care surrogate. Option B is not the most appropriate action in this situation as the advance directives are already clear by the designation of a health care surrogate. Option C is not necessary at this stage since the health care surrogate can make the decision without involving the ethics committee.
A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has end-stage heart failure. The client's partner tells the nurse she can no longer handle caring for the client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should contact the case manager to discuss discharge options and support the client's partner. This action is appropriate as it involves seeking professional guidance and support for the client's partner who is struggling to care for the client. Option A is not the best choice as it solely focuses on involving another family member without addressing the partner's concerns directly. Option B is premature as recommending long-term care should be a well-considered decision involving multiple healthcare professionals. Option D delays the inevitable without providing a solution to the partner's current challenges.
What is a primary responsibility of a healthcare manager?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Financial oversight is a primary responsibility of a healthcare manager. Healthcare managers are responsible for managing the financial aspects of healthcare facilities, including budgeting, financial planning, and ensuring financial sustainability. Direct patient care (choice A) is typically the responsibility of healthcare providers such as doctors and nurses, not managers. Ignoring staff concerns (choice C) is counterproductive and goes against effective management practices. Minimizing staff training (choice D) is also not a responsibility of a healthcare manager; on the contrary, they should ensure adequate training and development opportunities for their staff to improve patient care and overall performance.
A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a sodium level of 130 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a sodium value at this level?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Clients taking diuretics are at risk for hyponatremia due to excessive sodium loss. In this scenario, a sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is commonly associated with diuretic use. Options A, C, and D are not the highest risk factors for developing low sodium levels in this context. Renal failure, hyperaldosteronism, and corticosteroid use are not directly linked to sodium loss as seen with diuretics.
A nurse is preparing to delegate bathing and turning of a newly admitted client who has end-stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following assessments should the nurse make before delegating care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before delegating the task of bathing and turning a client with end-stage cancer to an experienced assistive personnel (AP), the nurse must assess specific client needs related to turning. This assessment ensures that the delegated care is tailored to the client's individual requirements, promoting safe and effective care. Option A is incorrect because the presence of the client's family is not directly related to assessing the client's specific needs for turning. Option C is incorrect as it refers to a different task (changing the central IV line dressing) and is not directly related to the turning assessment. Option D is incorrect as checking the client's pain level, although important, is not directly related to the specific needs related to turning the client.
A nurse enters the hallway and discovers a visitor looking at a client's medical information on a computer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take is to close the documentation program on the computer to prevent further unauthorized access to the client's medical information. Choice A is incorrect because the immediate concern is to secure the information first. Choice C, while important, can be addressed after securing the information. Choice D, finding out which staff member left the program open, is not the immediate priority when patient confidentiality is at risk.
Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: McBurney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis. McBurney's point is located in the right lower abdomen and tenderness at this point is a classic sign of appendicitis. Choice A is incorrect as appendicitis is slightly more common in males than females. Choice B is incorrect as a high fiber diet is actually considered to be protective against appendicitis. Choice C is incorrect as appendicitis typically presents with pain in the right lower quadrant, not the left.
What is the most common cause of HHNS?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most commonly caused by undiagnosed and untreated diabetes mellitus. Insulin overdose (Choice A) is not a typical cause of HHNS; it is more related to hypoglycemia. Removal of the adrenal gland (Choice B) can lead to adrenal insufficiency but is not a common cause of HHNS. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism (Choice C) is not a usual cause of HHNS; it is more related to pituitary hormone imbalances rather than hyperglycemia.
Your 54-year-old male HIV-positive patient has just expired. How should you care for this deceased patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Even after a patient has expired, standard precautions should be maintained to prevent the spread of infection. Bathing the deceased patient should be done using the same standard precautions followed when the patient was alive. This includes using personal protective equipment and following proper infection control procedures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because standard precautions must still be adhered to even after the patient has passed away to ensure safety and prevent the transmission of infections.
What is the primary focus of primary healthcare?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Preventive care. Primary healthcare emphasizes preventive care, which includes promoting overall health, preventing diseases, and providing early intervention to avoid the progression of illnesses. Emergency care (choice A) is focused on immediate medical attention for urgent health situations but is not the primary focus of primary healthcare. Specialized treatment (choice C) refers to care provided by specialists for specific health conditions, which is not the main focus of primary healthcare. Hospital-based services (choice D) involve inpatient care provided in a hospital setting, which is not the primary focus of primary healthcare that aims to provide comprehensive and accessible care at the community level.
Which patient is exercising their right to autonomy in the context of patient rights?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A 99-year-old exercising their right to autonomy in the context of patient rights by choosing CPR. Autonomy in healthcare refers to the patient's right to make their own decisions about their care, even if healthcare providers may disagree. In this scenario, the 99-year-old patient is exercising autonomy by making an informed choice about their medical treatment, despite healthcare professionals having a different opinion. Choices A, B, and C do not directly demonstrate the exercise of autonomy in decision-making regarding medical treatment, making them incorrect.
A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of hypocalcemia. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to note in the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Twitching. Hypocalcemia often presents with neuromuscular irritability, leading to manifestations such as twitching. Trousseau's sign is actually a positive indicator of hypocalcemia, not negative, making choice B incorrect. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not typically associated with hypocalcemia, making choice C incorrect. Similarly, hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not a common finding in hypocalcemia, making choice D incorrect.
Your pediatric patient weighs 15.8 kg. How many pounds does this child weigh?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To convert 15.8 kg to pounds, you multiply by the conversion factor of 2.20462. So, 15.8 kg * 2.20462 = 34.8 pounds. Therefore, the child weighs 34.8 pounds. Choice A is incorrect as it is higher than the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect as it is lower than the correct answer. Choice C is incorrect as it rounds down the conversion result, leading to an inaccurate weight measurement.
Nurses on an inpatient care unit are working to help reduce unit costs. Which of the following actions is appropriate to include in the cost-containment plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using clean gloves rather than sterile gloves for colostomy care is a cost-effective measure without compromising care quality. This choice helps in reducing costs without compromising patient safety. Storing opened bottles of normal saline in a refrigerator for up to 48 hours (Choice A) may lead to contamination risks. Returning unused supplies to the unit's supply stock (Choice B) can be inefficient and lead to potential waste. Waiting to dispose of sharps containers until they are completely full (Choice C) may pose safety hazards and not directly impact cost savings.
Serge, who has diabetes mellitus, is taking oral agents and is scheduled for a diagnostic test that requires him to be NPO. What is the best plan of action for the nurse regarding Serge's oral medications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best plan of action for the nurse is to notify the physician and request orders regarding Serge's oral medications. By involving the physician, the nurse ensures that appropriate instructions are obtained, considering Serge's medical condition and the need for NPO status for the diagnostic test. Administering the medications without medical guidance (choice A) can be risky, as it may affect the test results. Notifying the diagnostic department (choice B) is not the most direct and appropriate action; the physician is the primary healthcare provider responsible for medication orders. Administering the medications with water before the test (choice D) is not advisable when the patient is supposed to be NPO, as it can interfere with the test requirements.
A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes receives insulin. He asks the nurse why he can't just take pills instead. What is the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because insulin cannot be taken orally as it gets destroyed by stomach acid. Choice A is incorrect as the speed of action is not the reason why insulin can't be in pill form. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't address the nature of insulin. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't provide a factual reason why insulin can't be in pill form.
What are the fine, down-like hairs on the newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead known as?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lanugo is the term used to describe the fine, down-like hairs found on a newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead. These hairs are different from vernix, which is a waxy or cheese-like white substance covering the skin of newborns. Milia are small, white, or yellowish cysts that commonly appear on a newborn's face, while vibrissae are the thick, stiff hairs commonly found around the nose and other parts of the face.
A charge nurse notices that two staff nurses are not taking meal breaks during their shifts. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to determine the reasons the nurses are not taking scheduled breaks. This action is crucial as it allows the charge nurse to understand the underlying causes for the behavior. By identifying the reasons, the nurse can then address the root of the issue effectively. Option A is incorrect because discussing time management strategies may not address the specific reasons for not taking breaks. Option B is incorrect as providing coverage for breaks does not address the underlying cause of the issue. Option D is also incorrect as reviewing policies should come after understanding the reasons for the behavior.
Which of the following strategies can help reduce healthcare-associated infections?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct Answer: Implementing strict hygiene protocols can help reduce healthcare-associated infections. By maintaining high standards of hygiene, such as proper handwashing, sterilization of equipment, and cleanliness of the environment, the spread of infections can be minimized. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using outdated medical equipment can increase the risk of infections due to lack of proper maintenance and sterilization. Increasing patient wait times may lead to frustration but does not directly impact infection rates. Reducing nursing staff can compromise patient care and monitoring but is not specifically related to reducing healthcare-associated infections.
What is a major benefit of electronic health records (EHRs)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The major benefit of electronic health records (EHRs) is better coordination of care. EHRs allow healthcare providers to access and share patient information more efficiently, leading to improved coordination and continuity of care. Choice A, increased paperwork, is incorrect as EHRs aim to reduce paperwork by digitizing and centralizing health records. Choice C, higher risk of data breaches, is incorrect as EHRs have security measures in place to protect patient data. Choice D, more manual data entry, is incorrect as EHRs aim to automate and streamline data entry processes.
What is the role of a nurse in a multidisciplinary healthcare team?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Coordinating patient care with other team members.' In a multidisciplinary healthcare team, nurses collaborate with other healthcare professionals to ensure comprehensive care for patients. Working independently without consulting others (choice A) is not aligned with the collaborative nature of multidisciplinary teams. Ignoring patient concerns (choice C) goes against the core principles of patient-centered care. Making all healthcare decisions alone (choice D) contradicts the teamwork approach of a multidisciplinary team.
Ben injects his insulin as prescribed, but then gets busy and forgets to eat. What will the best assessment of the nurse reveal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. In this scenario, since Ben took his insulin but forgot to eat, he is at risk of developing hypoglycemia. Moist skin is a sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low. Thirstiness (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels). Nausea (choice B) and frequent urination (choice C) are not typical immediate signs of hypoglycemia caused by missing a meal after insulin administration.
A nurse manager observes an assistive personnel (AP) incorrectly transferring a client to the bedside commode. Which of the following should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client by immediately intervening to help the AP with the transfer. This hands-on assistance can prevent any potential harm to the client. Referring the AP to the facility procedure manual (Choice A) might take time and delay the necessary immediate action. Demonstrating the proper technique (Choice B) can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Instructing the AP to request assistance (Choice C) is not the most urgent step when a client's safety is at risk.
A case manager is preparing a discharge plan for a client following coronary artery bypass grafting surgery. Which of the following client issues should the nurse address first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should address the inadequate food supply first as it directly impacts the client's health post-discharge. Proper nutrition is crucial for recovery after surgery, especially such as coronary artery bypass grafting. While low pain tolerance, limited social support, and decreased self-esteem are all important issues to address, addressing the client's nutritional needs is the priority in this scenario to ensure optimal recovery and healing.
Which of the following healthcare providers can legally have access to all, or part, of a patient's medical record because they have a 'need to know'? Select one that does not apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Student nurses, licensed practical nurses, the Vice President for nursing investigating a fall, and quality assurance nurses have a 'need to know' basis to access patient records. Registered nurses who are not directly involved in the care of a patient do not have a legitimate reason or 'need to know' to access that patient's medical records, making choice B the correct answer. The Vice President for nursing investigating a specific incident and licensed practical nurses directly involved in a patient's care have legitimate reasons to access the medical records, ensuring continuity and quality of care.
A nurse manager is reviewing isolation guidelines with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates understanding of isolation guidelines?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Having a client on airborne precautions wear a mask when out of their room is appropriate to prevent the spread of infection. Choice B is incorrect because the healthcare provider, not the client, wears an N95 respirator mask for a client on droplet precautions. Choice C is incorrect because negative-pressure airflow rooms are used for clients with airborne infections, not compromised immunity. Choice D is incorrect because visitors, not clients, should wear a mask when visiting a client on contact precautions.
Most water leaves the body by way of the:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Most water leaves the body through the kidneys. The kidneys play a crucial role in filtering waste and excess substances from the blood to form urine, which is then excreted out of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while a small amount of water can be lost through respiration, feces, and sweating, the primary organ responsible for regulating water balance and excretion is the kidneys.
Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.
Which insulin has the most rapid onset of action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lispro insulin has the most rapid onset of action among the options provided. It is a rapid-acting insulin analog that is designed to control postprandial hyperglycemia effectively. Lente insulin (Choice A) and Ultralente insulin (Choice C) are intermediate-acting insulins, which have a slower onset of action compared to Lispro. Humulin N (Choice D) is a neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin, which is an intermediate-acting insulin, not rapid-acting like Lispro. Therefore, the correct choice is Lispro.
A nurse in the emergency department is performing triage for a group of clients who were in a train crash. Which of the following clients should the nurse tag as emergent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a triage situation, an asymmetrical thorax suggests a potentially life-threatening condition such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax, requiring immediate attention. This client should be tagged as emergent. Periorbital ecchymosis and deep-partial thickness burns, while concerning, may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. An open fracture of the femur, although serious, can be prioritized after addressing emergent cases.
Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.
A nurse is supervising an assistive personnel (AP) who is feeding a client who has dysphagia. Which of the following actions by the AP should the nurse identify as correct technique?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct technique for a client with dysphagia is to instruct them to place their chin toward their chest when swallowing. This action helps to close off the airway during swallowing, reducing the risk of aspiration. Elevating the head of the client's bed to 30 degrees during mealtime helps prevent aspiration, but this is not the responsibility of the AP. Withholding fluids until the end of the meal can lead to dehydration and is not a recommended practice. Providing a 10-minute rest period prior to meals is not specifically related to improving swallowing safety for clients with dysphagia.
Which nonpharmacological technique involves the use of electronic monitoring equipment while the patient controls basic bodily mechanisms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Biofeedback. Biofeedback is a nonpharmacological technique that uses electronic monitoring equipment to provide real-time data on physiological processes such as heart rate, muscle tension, and skin temperature. Through this feedback, patients learn to control and regulate these bodily functions voluntarily. Choice A, Meditation, involves focusing the mind and reducing stress through techniques like mindfulness or deep breathing, but it does not specifically rely on electronic monitoring equipment. Choice B, Visualization, is a technique where individuals imagine peaceful scenes to promote relaxation and reduce anxiety, and it also does not involve electronic monitoring. Choice D, Chiropractic, is a healthcare profession that focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of musculoskeletal disorders through manual adjustments and manipulation, which is unrelated to the use of electronic monitoring equipment for controlling bodily functions.
Based on the signs and symptoms of erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems, and skin nodules in your 32-year-old female patient, what disorder would you most likely suspect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The signs and symptoms described point towards rheumatoid arthritis. Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac issues, and skin nodules are classic manifestations of rheumatic fever, which is a complication of untreated streptococcal infection. This condition can lead to rheumatoid arthritis over time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the provided signs and symptoms, and they are not associated with the clinical presentation described.
A nurse on a med-surg unit is caring for a group of clients with the assistance of an LPN and an AP. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to the LPN?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to reinforce dietary teaching with a client who has heart disease. This task falls within the LPN's scope of practice as they can provide education and support related to nutrition. Obtaining a urine specimen (Choice B) is typically performed by nursing assistants. Providing postmortem care (Choice C) is a sensitive task usually performed by registered nurses. Accompanying a client to physical therapy (Choice D) is often done by nursing assistants or other supportive staff.
Alcohol, caffeine, or drugs are high-risk factors that all fall under which broad classification of risk factors?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Psychosocial. Alcohol, caffeine, or drug use are considered psychosocial risk factors as they are related to individual behavior, lifestyle choices, and social interactions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Social demographic factors (choice A) refer to characteristics of a population such as age, gender, education, income, etc. Environmental factors (choice B) include physical surroundings like air quality, housing conditions, etc. Biophysical factors (choice C) involve biological aspects like genetics, physiology, and health conditions.
A nurse working on a med-surg unit is managing the care of four clients. The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for which of the following clients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for a client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds to ensure comprehensive care coordination. In this case, the need for a conference may be to discuss potential adjustments in heparin therapy, monitor for adverse effects, or ensure proper anticoagulation levels. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically indicate the need for interdisciplinary collaboration related to the client's condition or treatment. Therefore, they are not the priority for scheduling an interdisciplinary conference.
Your patient has a blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L. What intervention should you anticipate for this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Kidney dialysis. A blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening. Kidney dialysis is the most appropriate intervention to rapidly lower potassium levels in this situation. Choice A, intravenous potassium supplementation, would worsen the hyperkalemia. Choice B, intravenous calcium supplementation, is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia. Choice D, parenteral nutrition, is unrelated to treating hyperkalemia and would not address the immediate concern.
Your long-term care patient has chronic pain and at this point in time, the patient needs increasing dosages to adequately control this pain. What is this patient most likely affected by?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Drug tolerance. When a patient needs increasing dosages to achieve the same pain relief, it indicates the development of drug tolerance. This means the body has adapted to the drug, requiring higher doses to produce the same effect. Choice A, drug addiction, is incorrect because drug addiction involves a psychological and physical dependence on the drug, which is not described in the scenario. Choice B, drug interactions, is incorrect as it refers to the effects when multiple drugs interact with each other, not the situation described. Choice C, drug side effects, is also incorrect as it pertains to the unintended effects of a drug, not the need for higher doses to control pain.
Which of the following best describes evidence-based practice?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Evidence-based practice involves integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence to make informed decisions about patient care. Choice A is incorrect as evidence-based practice relies on current and relevant research. Choice B is incorrect as it emphasizes the importance of not relying solely on personal experience. Choice D is incorrect as patient preferences play a significant role in evidence-based practice.
What is the primary goal of public health?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary goal of public health is to improve the health of populations by focusing on prevention, health promotion, and addressing the social determinants of health. Choice A is incorrect because public health looks at health from a population perspective rather than focusing on individual patient care. Choice C, while a potential benefit, is not the primary goal of public health. Choice D is incorrect as increasing hospital admissions is not a goal of public health; in fact, public health aims to prevent unnecessary hospitalizations through preventive measures.
A nurse is providing an in-service about client rights for a group of nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the service?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement to include in the in-service about client rights is that a nurse can disclose information to a family member with the client's permission. This respects the client's autonomy and privacy. Choice B is incorrect because restraints should only be applied based on a specific assessment and order, not on an as-needed basis. Choice C is incorrect as administering medications without consent is a violation of ethical principles and legal standards. Choice D is incorrect because while nurses should educate clients about treatment options, the ultimate decision lies with the client after being informed.
Which of the following changes was enacted by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act expanded school-based health centers to provide additional healthcare services to students. Choice A is incorrect because the creation of national health insurance exchanges was a key provision of the Affordable Care Act, but it was not the only change enacted by the legislation. Choice C is incorrect as while the Affordable Care Act did include provisions for free preventative services for certain groups, it was not applicable to all individuals. Choice D is incorrect as the Act did not specifically address medically managed clinics eligible for federal funding.
A nurse enters a client room to witness an informed consent for a gastroscopy. The client states he does not understand the procedure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure. This ensures that the client fully understands the gastroscopy procedure before giving consent. Choice A is incorrect as the client's issue is not about refusing medications. Choice B is irrelevant as there is no incident to report. Choice C could be misleading as the nurse should not be providing information about the procedure but rather ensuring that the client gets the necessary clarification from the provider.
A charge nurse making rounds observes that an assistive personnel (AP) has applied wrist restraints to a client who is agitated and does not have a prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take first is to remove the restraints from the client's wrists. Restraints should not be applied without a prescription due to the risk of harm to the client. Removing the restraints promptly is a priority to ensure the client's safety. Reviewing nonrestraint alternatives, speaking with the AP, and informing the unit manager can follow after ensuring the client's immediate safety by removing the restraints.
Your client is adversely affected with fever, night sweats, occult hematuria, tenderness of the spleen, and Osler's nodes. What disorder would you most likely suspect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client is likely suffering from endocarditis based on the symptoms described. Endocarditis is characterized by fever, night sweats, hematuria, splenomegaly (tenderness of the spleen), and Osler's nodes (painful nodules on the pads of the fingers or toes). While tuberculosis and AIDS/HIV can present with some similar symptoms, the presence of Osler's nodes is more specific to endocarditis. Pericarditis typically presents with chest pain, not the combination of symptoms seen in this case.
Who should document care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
All staff members should document the care they provided as part of their accountability and to ensure accurate and comprehensive records. In healthcare settings, it is essential for all staff to document the care they deliver for continuity of care and legal purposes. The registered nurse may sign off on the documentation for oversight purposes, but the responsibility of documenting care extends to all staff involved in patient care. Choices A and B incorrectly limit the responsibility to specific roles, while choice D inaccurately suggests that only the registered nurse signs off on the documentation, overlooking the importance of comprehensive documentation by all staff members involved.
Select all of the risk factors that are associated with deep vein thrombosis.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: "The use of oral contraceptives." Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis include factors such as immobility, surgery, cancer, obesity, smoking, and the use of oral contraceptives. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood type and Rh factor do not play a role in the development of deep vein thrombosis, and being underweight is not typically considered a risk factor for this condition.
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