HESI LPN

1. What intervention has the highest priority for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration following the vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce infant?

• A. Administer a prescribed stool softener
• B. Administer prescribed PRN sleep medications
• C. Encourage breastfeeding to promote uterine involution
• D. Encourage the use of prescribed analgesic perineal sprays

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering a prescribed stool softener is the highest priority intervention for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could potentially harm the healing laceration. Stool softeners help in maintaining soft stools, reducing the risk of injury to the suture line. Administering PRN sleep medications, encouraging breastfeeding, or promoting the use of analgesic perineal sprays are important aspects of care but are not the priority in this situation. Stool softeners play a crucial role in preventing complications and promoting healing in such cases, making it the most urgent intervention.

2. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old male client who is beginning to form a decubitus ulcer at the coccyx. Which intervention will be most helpful in preventing further development of the decubitus ulcer?

• A. Encourage the client to eat foods high in protein
• B. Assess the client for daily range of motion exercises
• C. Teach the family how to perform sterile wound care
• D. Ensure the IV fluids are administered as prescribed

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to eat foods high in protein is crucial in preventing further development of decubitus ulcers as high protein foods support tissue repair and skin integrity. Adequate protein intake is essential for wound healing. Assessing the client for daily range of motion exercises is important for preventing complications related to immobility, but it may not directly address the prevention of decubitus ulcers. Teaching the family how to perform sterile wound care is significant for wound management but may not be the most effective intervention to prevent further development of decubitus ulcers. Ensuring IV fluids are administered as prescribed is essential for maintaining hydration status but is not the most relevant intervention for preventing decubitus ulcers.

3. What are the final factors that contribute to blood pressure? (Select all that apply)

• A. Heart rate
• B. Stroke volume
• C. Peripheral resistance
• D. Neuroendocrine hormones

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Neuroendocrine hormones play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by influencing factors like fluid balance, blood volume, and vessel constriction. While heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are important factors affecting blood pressure, the final parameters that directly produce blood pressure are influenced by neuroendocrine hormones. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are involved in the regulation of blood pressure but are not the final parameters that directly produce it.

4. After morning dressing changes, a male client with paraplegia contaminates his ischial decubiti dressing with diarrheal stool. What is the best activity for the nurse to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Identify the need for additional supplies for an extra dressing change
• B. Provide perianal care and collect clean linens for the dressing change
• C. Document the diarrhea that necessitates an additional dressing change
• D. Position the client for access to the decubiti sites and remove dressings

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The best activity for the nurse to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) in this situation is to provide perianal care and collect clean linens for the dressing change. This task is crucial to maintain proper hygiene, prevent infection, and promote healing in the areas affected by decubiti. Choice A is not the priority as addressing the contamination and ensuring hygiene is more critical. Choice C is not the immediate concern and does not address the current situation. Choice D involves direct client care tasks that should be handled by licensed nursing staff.

5. A client is diagnosed with Angina Pectoris. Which factor in the client's history is likely related to the anginal pain?

• A. Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
• B. Drinks two beers daily
• C. Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun
• D. Eats while lying in bed

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a major risk factor for angina and other cardiovascular diseases due to its impact on blood vessels. Choice B, 'Drinks two beers daily,' is not directly associated with angina pectoris. While excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to heart problems, it is not a primary risk factor for angina. Choice C, 'Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun,' is not typically related to angina pectoris. Sun exposure is more closely linked to skin-related conditions. Choice D, 'Eats while lying in bed,' is also not a common risk factor for angina. While certain eating habits can impact heart health, this specific behavior is not directly associated with angina pectoris.