adult health exam 1 chamberlain Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain - Nursing Elites
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering morphine is a priority intervention during the acute phase of myocardial infarction (MI). Morphine not only provides pain relief but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because isometric exercises can increase myocardial oxygen demand and are not recommended during the acute phase of MI. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed, not keeping the client flat, is preferred to reduce workload on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be encouraged unless contraindicated, as adequate hydration is essential for cardiac function.

2. A client is diagnosed with Angina Pectoris. Which factor in the client's history is likely related to the anginal pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a major risk factor for angina and other cardiovascular diseases due to its impact on blood vessels. Choice B, 'Drinks two beers daily,' is not directly associated with angina pectoris. While excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to heart problems, it is not a primary risk factor for angina. Choice C, 'Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun,' is not typically related to angina pectoris. Sun exposure is more closely linked to skin-related conditions. Choice D, 'Eats while lying in bed,' is also not a common risk factor for angina. While certain eating habits can impact heart health, this specific behavior is not directly associated with angina pectoris.

3. The client is being educated by the nurse about the side effects of prednisone. Which side effect should the client be instructed to report immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever or sore throat. These symptoms should be reported immediately as they could indicate an infection, which can be serious in clients taking prednisone due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choices A and B are common side effects of prednisone but are not typically considered urgent. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is a known side effect of prednisone but is not an immediate concern compared to the potential of an infection signaled by fever or sore throat.

4. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary modifications. What should be emphasized?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing GERD, dietary modifications play a significant role. Avoiding spicy and fatty foods helps reduce irritation, while eating small, frequent meals prevents overeating, which can trigger reflux. Avoiding meals before bedtime allows for better digestion and reduces the likelihood of acid reflux during the night. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are crucial in managing GERD symptoms, making choice D the correct answer.

5. The client with high blood pressure is being taught by the nurse to avoid adding salt during cooking. What effect does sodium have on blood pressure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'It causes vasoconstriction of the blood vessels.' Sodium can lead to vasoconstriction, which narrows the blood vessels, increasing resistance to blood flow and subsequently raising blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Sodium does not decrease blood viscosity, but it can lead to fluid retention, which increases blood volume and pressure. It does not enhance the excretion of potassium; instead, high sodium intake can lead to potassium excretion by the kidneys.

Similar Questions

The client with high blood pressure is being taught by the nurse to avoid adding salt during cooking. What effect does sodium have on blood pressure?
The nurse is monitoring a client with an IV infusion in the left antecubital fossa. The site is warm, red, and without swelling. What conclusion should the nurse draw from these findings?
What intervention has the highest priority for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration following the vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce infant?
The nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test (TST). Which area of the body is the preferred site for this injection?
The nurse is assessing a client with hyperkalemia. Which finding is consistent with this electrolyte imbalance?
During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client’s fundal height at 26 weeks gestation. What should the fundal height be?
ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 50,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access @ $69.99

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 50,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access @ $149.99