Free HESI LPN Adult Health Nursing practice for Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain (HESI LPN). Answer 96 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, a
A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.
A client is being treated for dehydration. Which clinical finding would indicate that treatment is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. When a client is being treated for dehydration, increased urine output is a positive indication that the treatment is effective. This signifies that the body is beginning to rehydrate and eliminate excess fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and hypotension are all associated with dehydration and would not be signs of effective treatment.
The client with diabetes is being taught about the importance of foot care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B is the correct answer because soaking feet daily can lead to skin breakdown, making it inappropriate for clients with diabetes. Inspecting feet daily for cuts or blisters (Choice A), wearing properly fitting shoes (Choice C), and avoiding walking barefoot (Choice D) are all appropriate measures to maintain foot health for clients with diabetes.
The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and ease breathing in COPD patients. While administering bronchodilator therapy as prescribed (Choice A) is important, it is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice B) can be beneficial but do not take precedence over positioning for improved respiratory function. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) can be considered after the initial positioning to relieve respiratory distress, making it a later intervention.
The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with acute pancreatitis is to administer intravenous fluids as prescribed. Intravenous fluids are crucial to maintain hydration and electrolyte balance in clients with acute pancreatitis. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended initially for clients with acute pancreatitis, as they may need to be kept NPO (nothing by mouth) to rest the pancreas. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice B) may not be appropriate if the client is experiencing severe symptoms and requires intravenous fluids. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice D) is important but not the immediate intervention needed to address the fluid and electrolyte imbalances associated with acute pancreatitis.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure (CHF). Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Restrict fluid intake. Fluid restriction is crucial in the management of congestive heart failure (CHF) as it helps prevent fluid overload, which can exacerbate CHF symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Providing a high-sodium diet would worsen fluid retention and increase the workload of the heart. Encouraging vigorous exercise can strain the heart further in CHF patients. Administering bronchodilators is not the priority intervention for CHF.
Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.
The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which symptom should the nurse expect to find?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Shortness of breath is a characteristic symptom of left-sided heart failure. In this condition, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood forward causes blood to back up into the lungs, leading to fluid accumulation. This fluid accumulation results in pulmonary congestion, manifesting as shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the extremities. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is a sign of increased central venous pressure and is more indicative of right-sided heart failure. Weight gain (choice D) can be a general symptom of heart failure due to fluid retention, but shortness of breath is specifically related to left-sided heart failure.
A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed an SSRI. What is the most important information the nurse should provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important information the nurse should provide to a client prescribed an SSRI for depression is to report any thoughts of self-harm immediately. SSRIs can increase suicidal ideation, especially at the beginning of treatment, so it is crucial to monitor for this and take appropriate actions. While it is important to take the medication as prescribed (Choice A), the immediate need for reporting self-harm ideation takes precedence. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is a general precaution with certain medications but not as critical in this scenario. Understanding that improvement may take weeks (Choice D) is important for managing treatment expectations, but ensuring the client's safety in the context of suicidal ideation is the top priority.
The healthcare provider plans to assess a newborn and check the infant's Moro reflex. What is the healthcare provider evaluating?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Moro reflex is an instinctive response observed in newborns, indicating their neurological integrity. This reflex is evaluated by eliciting a startle response in the infant, involving the sudden extension and abduction of the limbs, followed by their retraction. This assessment helps in determining the proper functioning of the infant's nervous system and brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the evaluation of the Moro reflex. Renal functioning pertains to kidney function, thermoregulation refers to temperature control, and respiratory adequacy involves assessing breathing and oxygenation levels, none of which are evaluated through the Moro reflex.
Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct teaching point is to instruct the client to report any increase in suicidal thoughts. This is crucial because SSRIs like fluoxetine can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially at the beginning of treatment. Choice A is corrected to emphasize that fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is unrelated as it pertains more to MAOIs than SSRIs like fluoxetine. Choice D is inaccurate as antidepressants like fluoxetine may take weeks to show significant improvement in symptoms, not within 24 hours.
What is the most important information the nurse should teach a diabetic client about foot care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to inspect feet daily. For diabetic clients, daily foot inspection is crucial in preventing complications like infections and ulcers. By checking their feet regularly, clients can identify any issues early and seek appropriate medical care. The other choices are important aspects of foot care for diabetic clients but not as critical as daily foot inspections. Wearing cotton socks helps in moisture control, using lukewarm water to wash feet helps prevent skin damage, and cutting nails straight across prevents ingrown nails. However, daily foot inspection is the most vital as it allows for early detection of any potential problems, which is key in diabetic foot care.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Remove the bandages from the incision after 24 hours.' Prompt removal of bandages after 24 hours promotes proper wound healing and reduces the risk of infection. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding driving for 2 weeks may not be universally necessary post-cholecystectomy. Choice B is incorrect because while a low-fat diet is recommended after surgery, it is not directly related to incision care. Choice D is incorrect because while pain is common post-surgery, stating 'significant pain for the first week' may not apply to all patients, potentially causing unnecessary anxiety.
When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.
The client with hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications. What topic is most important?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Reducing salt intake is crucial for managing hypertension. Excessive salt consumption can lead to fluid retention, increasing blood pressure. While stress management, regular physical activity, and weight loss are beneficial for overall health, reducing salt intake is the most important lifestyle modification for controlling hypertension. Stress management may help reduce overall stress levels but does not directly impact blood pressure as salt intake does. Regular physical activity and weight loss can also benefit blood pressure control, but the immediate impact of reducing salt intake is more significant.
A client with cirrhosis is experiencing pruritus. Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Administer antihistamines as prescribed. Pruritus, or itching, is a common symptom in clients with cirrhosis. Antihistamines can help relieve itching by blocking the effects of histamine. Applying alcohol-based lotions (choice B) can further dry out the skin and exacerbate itching. Encouraging frequent baths with hot water (choice C) can also worsen pruritus by stripping the skin of natural oils. Limiting fluid intake (choice D) is not directly related to managing pruritus in cirrhosis.
The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.
The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from surgery with an indwelling urinary catheter in place. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important assessment for the nurse to make in this situation is to measure the urine output. This assessment is crucial in monitoring kidney function and fluid balance after surgery. While checking for catheter patency is important, it is not as critical as measuring urine output. Assessing the color of the urine can provide some information about kidney function, but measuring output gives a more accurate assessment. Ensuring the catheter tubing is secure is essential to prevent dislodgement but is not the most critical assessment to make at this time.
A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.
A client has a prescription for enteric-coated (EC) aspirin 325mg PO daily. The medication drawer contains one 325mg aspirin. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin. Enteric-coated medications are designed to dissolve in the intestine, not the stomach, to avoid irritation. Therefore, it is essential to ensure the client receives the correct form of aspirin as prescribed. Instructing the client about the effects of the medication (choice B) is not necessary at this point as the issue is related to the form of the aspirin. Administering the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack (choice C) is not appropriate as it does not address the need for the correct form of the medication. Withholding the aspirin (choice D) without consulting the healthcare provider is not advisable as it may lead to a delay in the client receiving the necessary medication.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'To increase red blood cell production.' Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells to treat anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy is primarily used to address anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells rather than lowering blood pressure, improving appetite, or reducing fluid retention.
When caring for a client with a urinary catheter, what is the most important intervention to prevent infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important intervention to prevent infection when caring for a client with a urinary catheter is to ensure that the catheter bag is below the level of the bladder. This positioning helps prevent urine backflow, reducing the risk of infection. While using sterile technique for catheter care (Choice A) is important, ensuring proper drainage by keeping the catheter bag below the bladder is crucial to prevent infection. Providing perineal care daily (Choice C) is essential for hygiene but not directly related to preventing catheter-related infections. Changing the catheter only when necessary (Choice D) is important for maintenance, but correct positioning of the catheter bag is more critical in preventing immediate infection.
The nurse explains the 2-week dosage prescription of prednisone (Deltasone) to a client who has poison ivy over multiple skin surfaces. What should the nurse emphasize about the dosing schedule?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Decrease the dosage daily as prescribed.' Tapering the dosage of prednisone is crucial to prevent withdrawal symptoms and minimize the side effects of corticosteroid therapy. Decreasing the dosage gradually over time allows the body to adjust and reduces the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Monitoring oral temperature daily, taking prednisone with meals, or returning for blood glucose monitoring in one week are not specific to the dosing schedule of prednisone for poison ivy treatment.
When assisting a client to obtain a sputum specimen, the nurse observes the client cough and spit a large amount of frothy saliva in the specimen collection cup. What action should the nurse implement next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After observing the client cough and produce frothy saliva in the collection cup, the nurse should provide the client with a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth. This action helps clear the mouth of contaminants, ensuring a more accurate sputum specimen for diagnostic testing. Option A is incorrect because suctioning is not the appropriate next step in this situation. Option B is unnecessary as re-instructing the client in coughing techniques may not address the immediate issue of contaminated saliva in the specimen. Option D is premature since labeling and transporting the container should only be done after obtaining a valid specimen.
A client is admitted with Atrial Fibrillation and is administered amiodarone (Cordarone). What therapeutic response should the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm. Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to restore and maintain normal heart rhythm in clients with atrial fibrillation. It works by slowing down the electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heartbeat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the therapeutic response expected from administering amiodarone in a client with atrial fibrillation. Pulse oximetry readings, peripheral pulses, capillary refill, and exercise tolerance are important assessments but are not the primary therapeutic goal of using amiodarone in this situation.
The nurse notes that a postoperative client's wound site is red and slightly swollen. What is the most appropriate action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to notify the surgeon. Redness and swelling at a wound site can indicate an infection, which may require medical intervention. Applying an ice pack (choice A) is not appropriate without further assessment. While documenting the findings and monitoring (choice B) is important, it should be accompanied by notifying the surgeon for further evaluation. Cleaning the wound with sterile saline (choice D) may not be sufficient if an infection is present, so immediate communication with the surgeon is crucial.
Which client assessment falls within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because assessing a new deep vein thrombosis (DVT) patient is within the scope of practical nursing. It involves monitoring and supporting the circulatory system health, which is a common responsibility for practical nurses. Choices A, C, and D involve scenarios that are typically beyond the initial assessment and care provided by practical nurses. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints may require immediate intervention by higher-level healthcare providers due to safety concerns and potential underlying issues. The return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection and the transfer of a client with sepsis involve more specialized care that goes beyond the typical responsibilities of a practical nurse, often requiring interventions from registered nurses or physicians.
What is the most important information for the nurse to provide to a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.' When starting an SSRI, clients should be informed to report any thoughts of self-harm promptly. SSRIs can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially in the early stages of treatment. This information is crucial for the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, avoiding foods high in tyramine, and expecting immediate improvement within 24 hours are not the most critical pieces of information for a client starting on an SSRI.
To assess pedal pulses, which arterial sites should the nurse palpate? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Dorsalis pedis artery. When assessing pedal pulses, the nurse should palpate the dorsalis pedis artery and the posterior tibial artery. The radial artery is located in the wrist and is not a site for assessing pedal pulses. The external iliac artery is not a correct site for assessing pedal pulses in the lower extremities, making it the correct answer.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote airway clearance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most appropriate intervention to promote airway clearance in a client with pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to cough up and clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators (Choice A) may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy (Choice C) can be beneficial in certain cases but may not be the initial intervention for promoting airway clearance. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice D) can help improve oxygenation but does not specifically target airway clearance in pneumonia.
The nurse is assessing a client who has just received a blood transfusion. The client reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Stop the transfusion immediately. Chills and back pain are indicative of a possible transfusion reaction, which is a critical situation. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety. Slowing the rate of transfusion (Choice A) is not sufficient in this case as immediate action is required. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help with fever but does not address the potential severe reaction. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after stopping the transfusion, but the priority is to halt the infusion to prevent harm.
A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with Pneumonia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention to prevent complications associated with pneumonia is to encourage mobilization and ambulation. These activities help prevent complications such as atelectasis by promoting lung expansion. Encouraging energy conservation with complete bed rest (Choice B) is not ideal as it can lead to complications like muscle weakness and decreased lung expansion. Providing humidified oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice C) is important in pneumonia treatment but does not directly prevent complications associated with pneumonia itself. Restricting oral (PO) and intravenous fluids (Choice D) is not recommended as adequate hydration is crucial for pneumonia patients to maintain respiratory function and overall health.
Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.
A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.
A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the most critical treatment to initiate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the case of diabetic ketoacidosis, the most critical treatment to initiate is starting an insulin drip. Insulin therapy is crucial for reducing blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake in cells and inhibiting the production of ketones. Administering sodium bicarbonate IV is generally not recommended as it may lower the pH further and potentially worsen the condition. While monitoring glucose and ketone levels is important for assessing the response to treatment, initiating insulin therapy takes precedence. Providing oral hydration alone is insufficient to manage the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.
A client requires application of an eye shield to the right eye. What should the nurse do in order to apply tape to anchor the shield most effectively?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct way to apply tape to anchor an eye shield effectively is to attach the tape from the lower eyelid to the upper forehead. This method provides stability for the shield without putting pressure on the eye itself, thus helping to protect the eye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taping from the cheek to the forehead, securing tape from the nose to the ear, or using circular bandaging around the head may not provide the necessary stability and protection required for the eye shield.
What is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Osmosis. Osmosis is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space to maintain cellular balance. In osmosis, water moves across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration (hypotonic) to an area of high solute concentration (hypertonic). This process helps regulate the water content inside cells. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Filtration involves the movement of solutes and solvents through a membrane due to a pressure difference, diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of high concentration to low concentration, and active transport requires energy to move substances against their concentration gradient.
What intervention should the nurse implement for a client experiencing an anxiety attack?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering prescribed anxiolytic medication is the most appropriate intervention for a client experiencing an anxiety attack. Anxiolytic medications can provide rapid relief from severe anxiety symptoms. Teaching deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be helpful for managing mild anxiety but may not be sufficient during an acute anxiety attack. Providing a quiet environment (choice B) is beneficial to reduce stimuli, but it may not address the immediate distress of an ongoing anxiety attack. Engaging the client in conversation (choice D) is generally not recommended during an anxiety attack as it can potentially exacerbate the symptoms by increasing stimulation.
A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What is the most important assessment before administering this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the heart rate before administering digoxin. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, making it crucial to evaluate the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Checking blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not as critical as assessing the heart rate in this context. Monitoring respiratory rate (Choice C) and measuring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are not the most crucial assessments before administering digoxin, as the primary concern with this medication is its impact on heart rate.
4 hours after administration of 20U of regular insulin, the client becomes shaky and diaphoretic. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when a client becomes shaky and diaphoretic after insulin administration, indicating hypoglycemia, is to provide the client with carbohydrates like crackers and milk. Carbohydrates help raise blood glucose levels quickly. Encouraging the client to eat crackers and milk (Choice A) is the appropriate immediate action to address the hypoglycemia. Administering more insulin (Choice B) would worsen hypoglycemia, and recording the reaction (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to treat the hypoglycemia.
What is the function of the cervix in reproduction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The cervix functions in reproduction by secreting mucus that facilitates the transport of sperm to the uterus. Choice A is incorrect because the cervix does not interpret signals of sexual stimuli. Choice C is incorrect as the site for the union of ovum and sperm is the fallopian tube. Choice D is incorrect as the cervix is not involved in receiving the penis during intercourse.
A client has a prescription for a Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a Lumbar Laminectomy. What information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. TENS units work by delivering small electrical impulses through the skin. These impulses are thought to close the 'gates of nerve conduction,' which can help in managing severe pain. Choice B is incorrect because the dulled pain perception does not occur in the cerebral cortex by the TENS unit. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice D is incorrect because TENS does not work by distracting the client's focus on pain, but rather by altering pain perception through electrical impulses.
The nurse is preparing a client for discharge after a major surgical procedure. What is the priority instruction to include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: All of the above. Providing comprehensive discharge instructions covering signs of infection to monitor for, pain management techniques, activity restrictions, and safety measures is crucial after a major surgical procedure. Each of these components plays a vital role in the client's recovery and well-being. It is important for the client to understand how to identify signs of infection, manage pain effectively, and adhere to activity restrictions to prevent complications and ensure a smooth recovery process. While each instruction is important on its own, combining all aspects into the discharge teaching ensures that the client has a holistic understanding of their post-operative care, empowering them to take charge of their health and know when to seek further assistance if needed. Choices A, B, and C are essential components of discharge teaching and should all be included to provide the client with comprehensive care instructions.
The client is 4 hours post-operative from a cesarean section and complains of gas pain and bloating. What non-pharmacological intervention can the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to encourage the client to ambulate. Early ambulation helps alleviate gas pain and bloating by promoting gastrointestinal motility and reducing the accumulation of gas in the abdomen. Applying a heating pad may provide comfort for some types of pain but is not specifically effective for gas pain. Providing a carbonated beverage can actually worsen gas pain due to the introduction of more gas into the digestive system. Teaching relaxation techniques may be beneficial for overall comfort but may not directly address the gas pain and bloating experienced post-cesarean section.
The healthcare professional is developing a care plan for a client with depression. What should be included in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A comprehensive care plan for a client with depression should include multiple components to address various aspects of health. Regular physical activity can help improve mood and overall well-being. Scheduled sleep patterns are essential as sleep disturbances are common in depression and can worsen symptoms. Social interaction with family and friends provides emotional support and reduces feelings of isolation. Therefore, including all these aspects in the care plan can help support the client's recovery. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the options are important components of a holistic care plan for depression. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these elements plays a crucial role in managing depression.
What should the nurse prioritize when providing discharge instructions to a client with a new colostomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct answer: Skin care around the stoma site. Proper skin care around the stoma site is crucial for preventing skin irritation and infection, which are common issues for patients with new colostomies. While the schedule for colostomy bag replacement (Option B) is important, it is not the priority during initial discharge instructions. Techniques for odor control (Option C) are relevant but secondary to skin care for a new colostomy. Dietary modifications (Option D) may be discussed later but are not the priority at this stage.
A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.
A client is being treated for dehydration. Which clinical finding would indicate that treatment is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. When a client is being treated for dehydration, increased urine output is a positive indication that the treatment is effective. This signifies that the body is beginning to rehydrate and eliminate excess fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and hypotension are all associated with dehydration and would not be signs of effective treatment.
The client with diabetes is being taught about the importance of foot care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B is the correct answer because soaking feet daily can lead to skin breakdown, making it inappropriate for clients with diabetes. Inspecting feet daily for cuts or blisters (Choice A), wearing properly fitting shoes (Choice C), and avoiding walking barefoot (Choice D) are all appropriate measures to maintain foot health for clients with diabetes.
The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and ease breathing in COPD patients. While administering bronchodilator therapy as prescribed (Choice A) is important, it is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice B) can be beneficial but do not take precedence over positioning for improved respiratory function. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) can be considered after the initial positioning to relieve respiratory distress, making it a later intervention.
The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with acute pancreatitis is to administer intravenous fluids as prescribed. Intravenous fluids are crucial to maintain hydration and electrolyte balance in clients with acute pancreatitis. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended initially for clients with acute pancreatitis, as they may need to be kept NPO (nothing by mouth) to rest the pancreas. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice B) may not be appropriate if the client is experiencing severe symptoms and requires intravenous fluids. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice D) is important but not the immediate intervention needed to address the fluid and electrolyte imbalances associated with acute pancreatitis.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure (CHF). Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Restrict fluid intake. Fluid restriction is crucial in the management of congestive heart failure (CHF) as it helps prevent fluid overload, which can exacerbate CHF symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Providing a high-sodium diet would worsen fluid retention and increase the workload of the heart. Encouraging vigorous exercise can strain the heart further in CHF patients. Administering bronchodilators is not the priority intervention for CHF.
Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.
The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which symptom should the nurse expect to find?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Shortness of breath is a characteristic symptom of left-sided heart failure. In this condition, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood forward causes blood to back up into the lungs, leading to fluid accumulation. This fluid accumulation results in pulmonary congestion, manifesting as shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the extremities. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is a sign of increased central venous pressure and is more indicative of right-sided heart failure. Weight gain (choice D) can be a general symptom of heart failure due to fluid retention, but shortness of breath is specifically related to left-sided heart failure.
A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed an SSRI. What is the most important information the nurse should provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important information the nurse should provide to a client prescribed an SSRI for depression is to report any thoughts of self-harm immediately. SSRIs can increase suicidal ideation, especially at the beginning of treatment, so it is crucial to monitor for this and take appropriate actions. While it is important to take the medication as prescribed (Choice A), the immediate need for reporting self-harm ideation takes precedence. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is a general precaution with certain medications but not as critical in this scenario. Understanding that improvement may take weeks (Choice D) is important for managing treatment expectations, but ensuring the client's safety in the context of suicidal ideation is the top priority.
The healthcare provider plans to assess a newborn and check the infant's Moro reflex. What is the healthcare provider evaluating?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Moro reflex is an instinctive response observed in newborns, indicating their neurological integrity. This reflex is evaluated by eliciting a startle response in the infant, involving the sudden extension and abduction of the limbs, followed by their retraction. This assessment helps in determining the proper functioning of the infant's nervous system and brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the evaluation of the Moro reflex. Renal functioning pertains to kidney function, thermoregulation refers to temperature control, and respiratory adequacy involves assessing breathing and oxygenation levels, none of which are evaluated through the Moro reflex.
Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct teaching point is to instruct the client to report any increase in suicidal thoughts. This is crucial because SSRIs like fluoxetine can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially at the beginning of treatment. Choice A is corrected to emphasize that fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is unrelated as it pertains more to MAOIs than SSRIs like fluoxetine. Choice D is inaccurate as antidepressants like fluoxetine may take weeks to show significant improvement in symptoms, not within 24 hours.
What is the most important information the nurse should teach a diabetic client about foot care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to inspect feet daily. For diabetic clients, daily foot inspection is crucial in preventing complications like infections and ulcers. By checking their feet regularly, clients can identify any issues early and seek appropriate medical care. The other choices are important aspects of foot care for diabetic clients but not as critical as daily foot inspections. Wearing cotton socks helps in moisture control, using lukewarm water to wash feet helps prevent skin damage, and cutting nails straight across prevents ingrown nails. However, daily foot inspection is the most vital as it allows for early detection of any potential problems, which is key in diabetic foot care.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Remove the bandages from the incision after 24 hours.' Prompt removal of bandages after 24 hours promotes proper wound healing and reduces the risk of infection. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding driving for 2 weeks may not be universally necessary post-cholecystectomy. Choice B is incorrect because while a low-fat diet is recommended after surgery, it is not directly related to incision care. Choice D is incorrect because while pain is common post-surgery, stating 'significant pain for the first week' may not apply to all patients, potentially causing unnecessary anxiety.
When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.
The client with hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications. What topic is most important?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Reducing salt intake is crucial for managing hypertension. Excessive salt consumption can lead to fluid retention, increasing blood pressure. While stress management, regular physical activity, and weight loss are beneficial for overall health, reducing salt intake is the most important lifestyle modification for controlling hypertension. Stress management may help reduce overall stress levels but does not directly impact blood pressure as salt intake does. Regular physical activity and weight loss can also benefit blood pressure control, but the immediate impact of reducing salt intake is more significant.
A client with cirrhosis is experiencing pruritus. Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Administer antihistamines as prescribed. Pruritus, or itching, is a common symptom in clients with cirrhosis. Antihistamines can help relieve itching by blocking the effects of histamine. Applying alcohol-based lotions (choice B) can further dry out the skin and exacerbate itching. Encouraging frequent baths with hot water (choice C) can also worsen pruritus by stripping the skin of natural oils. Limiting fluid intake (choice D) is not directly related to managing pruritus in cirrhosis.
The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.
The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from surgery with an indwelling urinary catheter in place. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important assessment for the nurse to make in this situation is to measure the urine output. This assessment is crucial in monitoring kidney function and fluid balance after surgery. While checking for catheter patency is important, it is not as critical as measuring urine output. Assessing the color of the urine can provide some information about kidney function, but measuring output gives a more accurate assessment. Ensuring the catheter tubing is secure is essential to prevent dislodgement but is not the most critical assessment to make at this time.
A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.
A client has a prescription for enteric-coated (EC) aspirin 325mg PO daily. The medication drawer contains one 325mg aspirin. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin. Enteric-coated medications are designed to dissolve in the intestine, not the stomach, to avoid irritation. Therefore, it is essential to ensure the client receives the correct form of aspirin as prescribed. Instructing the client about the effects of the medication (choice B) is not necessary at this point as the issue is related to the form of the aspirin. Administering the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack (choice C) is not appropriate as it does not address the need for the correct form of the medication. Withholding the aspirin (choice D) without consulting the healthcare provider is not advisable as it may lead to a delay in the client receiving the necessary medication.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'To increase red blood cell production.' Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells to treat anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy is primarily used to address anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells rather than lowering blood pressure, improving appetite, or reducing fluid retention.
When caring for a client with a urinary catheter, what is the most important intervention to prevent infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important intervention to prevent infection when caring for a client with a urinary catheter is to ensure that the catheter bag is below the level of the bladder. This positioning helps prevent urine backflow, reducing the risk of infection. While using sterile technique for catheter care (Choice A) is important, ensuring proper drainage by keeping the catheter bag below the bladder is crucial to prevent infection. Providing perineal care daily (Choice C) is essential for hygiene but not directly related to preventing catheter-related infections. Changing the catheter only when necessary (Choice D) is important for maintenance, but correct positioning of the catheter bag is more critical in preventing immediate infection.
The nurse explains the 2-week dosage prescription of prednisone (Deltasone) to a client who has poison ivy over multiple skin surfaces. What should the nurse emphasize about the dosing schedule?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Decrease the dosage daily as prescribed.' Tapering the dosage of prednisone is crucial to prevent withdrawal symptoms and minimize the side effects of corticosteroid therapy. Decreasing the dosage gradually over time allows the body to adjust and reduces the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Monitoring oral temperature daily, taking prednisone with meals, or returning for blood glucose monitoring in one week are not specific to the dosing schedule of prednisone for poison ivy treatment.
When assisting a client to obtain a sputum specimen, the nurse observes the client cough and spit a large amount of frothy saliva in the specimen collection cup. What action should the nurse implement next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After observing the client cough and produce frothy saliva in the collection cup, the nurse should provide the client with a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth. This action helps clear the mouth of contaminants, ensuring a more accurate sputum specimen for diagnostic testing. Option A is incorrect because suctioning is not the appropriate next step in this situation. Option B is unnecessary as re-instructing the client in coughing techniques may not address the immediate issue of contaminated saliva in the specimen. Option D is premature since labeling and transporting the container should only be done after obtaining a valid specimen.
A client is admitted with Atrial Fibrillation and is administered amiodarone (Cordarone). What therapeutic response should the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm. Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to restore and maintain normal heart rhythm in clients with atrial fibrillation. It works by slowing down the electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heartbeat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the therapeutic response expected from administering amiodarone in a client with atrial fibrillation. Pulse oximetry readings, peripheral pulses, capillary refill, and exercise tolerance are important assessments but are not the primary therapeutic goal of using amiodarone in this situation.
The nurse notes that a postoperative client's wound site is red and slightly swollen. What is the most appropriate action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to notify the surgeon. Redness and swelling at a wound site can indicate an infection, which may require medical intervention. Applying an ice pack (choice A) is not appropriate without further assessment. While documenting the findings and monitoring (choice B) is important, it should be accompanied by notifying the surgeon for further evaluation. Cleaning the wound with sterile saline (choice D) may not be sufficient if an infection is present, so immediate communication with the surgeon is crucial.
Which client assessment falls within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because assessing a new deep vein thrombosis (DVT) patient is within the scope of practical nursing. It involves monitoring and supporting the circulatory system health, which is a common responsibility for practical nurses. Choices A, C, and D involve scenarios that are typically beyond the initial assessment and care provided by practical nurses. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints may require immediate intervention by higher-level healthcare providers due to safety concerns and potential underlying issues. The return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection and the transfer of a client with sepsis involve more specialized care that goes beyond the typical responsibilities of a practical nurse, often requiring interventions from registered nurses or physicians.
What is the most important information for the nurse to provide to a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.' When starting an SSRI, clients should be informed to report any thoughts of self-harm promptly. SSRIs can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially in the early stages of treatment. This information is crucial for the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, avoiding foods high in tyramine, and expecting immediate improvement within 24 hours are not the most critical pieces of information for a client starting on an SSRI.
To assess pedal pulses, which arterial sites should the nurse palpate? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Dorsalis pedis artery. When assessing pedal pulses, the nurse should palpate the dorsalis pedis artery and the posterior tibial artery. The radial artery is located in the wrist and is not a site for assessing pedal pulses. The external iliac artery is not a correct site for assessing pedal pulses in the lower extremities, making it the correct answer.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote airway clearance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most appropriate intervention to promote airway clearance in a client with pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to cough up and clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators (Choice A) may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy (Choice C) can be beneficial in certain cases but may not be the initial intervention for promoting airway clearance. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice D) can help improve oxygenation but does not specifically target airway clearance in pneumonia.
The nurse is assessing a client who has just received a blood transfusion. The client reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Stop the transfusion immediately. Chills and back pain are indicative of a possible transfusion reaction, which is a critical situation. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety. Slowing the rate of transfusion (Choice A) is not sufficient in this case as immediate action is required. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help with fever but does not address the potential severe reaction. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after stopping the transfusion, but the priority is to halt the infusion to prevent harm.
A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with Pneumonia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention to prevent complications associated with pneumonia is to encourage mobilization and ambulation. These activities help prevent complications such as atelectasis by promoting lung expansion. Encouraging energy conservation with complete bed rest (Choice B) is not ideal as it can lead to complications like muscle weakness and decreased lung expansion. Providing humidified oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice C) is important in pneumonia treatment but does not directly prevent complications associated with pneumonia itself. Restricting oral (PO) and intravenous fluids (Choice D) is not recommended as adequate hydration is crucial for pneumonia patients to maintain respiratory function and overall health.
Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.
A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.
A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the most critical treatment to initiate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the case of diabetic ketoacidosis, the most critical treatment to initiate is starting an insulin drip. Insulin therapy is crucial for reducing blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake in cells and inhibiting the production of ketones. Administering sodium bicarbonate IV is generally not recommended as it may lower the pH further and potentially worsen the condition. While monitoring glucose and ketone levels is important for assessing the response to treatment, initiating insulin therapy takes precedence. Providing oral hydration alone is insufficient to manage the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.
A client requires application of an eye shield to the right eye. What should the nurse do in order to apply tape to anchor the shield most effectively?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct way to apply tape to anchor an eye shield effectively is to attach the tape from the lower eyelid to the upper forehead. This method provides stability for the shield without putting pressure on the eye itself, thus helping to protect the eye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taping from the cheek to the forehead, securing tape from the nose to the ear, or using circular bandaging around the head may not provide the necessary stability and protection required for the eye shield.
What is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Osmosis. Osmosis is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space to maintain cellular balance. In osmosis, water moves across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration (hypotonic) to an area of high solute concentration (hypertonic). This process helps regulate the water content inside cells. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Filtration involves the movement of solutes and solvents through a membrane due to a pressure difference, diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of high concentration to low concentration, and active transport requires energy to move substances against their concentration gradient.
What intervention should the nurse implement for a client experiencing an anxiety attack?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering prescribed anxiolytic medication is the most appropriate intervention for a client experiencing an anxiety attack. Anxiolytic medications can provide rapid relief from severe anxiety symptoms. Teaching deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be helpful for managing mild anxiety but may not be sufficient during an acute anxiety attack. Providing a quiet environment (choice B) is beneficial to reduce stimuli, but it may not address the immediate distress of an ongoing anxiety attack. Engaging the client in conversation (choice D) is generally not recommended during an anxiety attack as it can potentially exacerbate the symptoms by increasing stimulation.
A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What is the most important assessment before administering this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the heart rate before administering digoxin. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, making it crucial to evaluate the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Checking blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not as critical as assessing the heart rate in this context. Monitoring respiratory rate (Choice C) and measuring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are not the most crucial assessments before administering digoxin, as the primary concern with this medication is its impact on heart rate.
4 hours after administration of 20U of regular insulin, the client becomes shaky and diaphoretic. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when a client becomes shaky and diaphoretic after insulin administration, indicating hypoglycemia, is to provide the client with carbohydrates like crackers and milk. Carbohydrates help raise blood glucose levels quickly. Encouraging the client to eat crackers and milk (Choice A) is the appropriate immediate action to address the hypoglycemia. Administering more insulin (Choice B) would worsen hypoglycemia, and recording the reaction (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to treat the hypoglycemia.
What is the function of the cervix in reproduction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The cervix functions in reproduction by secreting mucus that facilitates the transport of sperm to the uterus. Choice A is incorrect because the cervix does not interpret signals of sexual stimuli. Choice C is incorrect as the site for the union of ovum and sperm is the fallopian tube. Choice D is incorrect as the cervix is not involved in receiving the penis during intercourse.
A client has a prescription for a Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a Lumbar Laminectomy. What information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. TENS units work by delivering small electrical impulses through the skin. These impulses are thought to close the 'gates of nerve conduction,' which can help in managing severe pain. Choice B is incorrect because the dulled pain perception does not occur in the cerebral cortex by the TENS unit. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice D is incorrect because TENS does not work by distracting the client's focus on pain, but rather by altering pain perception through electrical impulses.
The nurse is preparing a client for discharge after a major surgical procedure. What is the priority instruction to include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: All of the above. Providing comprehensive discharge instructions covering signs of infection to monitor for, pain management techniques, activity restrictions, and safety measures is crucial after a major surgical procedure. Each of these components plays a vital role in the client's recovery and well-being. It is important for the client to understand how to identify signs of infection, manage pain effectively, and adhere to activity restrictions to prevent complications and ensure a smooth recovery process. While each instruction is important on its own, combining all aspects into the discharge teaching ensures that the client has a holistic understanding of their post-operative care, empowering them to take charge of their health and know when to seek further assistance if needed. Choices A, B, and C are essential components of discharge teaching and should all be included to provide the client with comprehensive care instructions.
The client is 4 hours post-operative from a cesarean section and complains of gas pain and bloating. What non-pharmacological intervention can the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to encourage the client to ambulate. Early ambulation helps alleviate gas pain and bloating by promoting gastrointestinal motility and reducing the accumulation of gas in the abdomen. Applying a heating pad may provide comfort for some types of pain but is not specifically effective for gas pain. Providing a carbonated beverage can actually worsen gas pain due to the introduction of more gas into the digestive system. Teaching relaxation techniques may be beneficial for overall comfort but may not directly address the gas pain and bloating experienced post-cesarean section.
The healthcare professional is developing a care plan for a client with depression. What should be included in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A comprehensive care plan for a client with depression should include multiple components to address various aspects of health. Regular physical activity can help improve mood and overall well-being. Scheduled sleep patterns are essential as sleep disturbances are common in depression and can worsen symptoms. Social interaction with family and friends provides emotional support and reduces feelings of isolation. Therefore, including all these aspects in the care plan can help support the client's recovery. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the options are important components of a holistic care plan for depression. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these elements plays a crucial role in managing depression.
What should the nurse prioritize when providing discharge instructions to a client with a new colostomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct answer: Skin care around the stoma site. Proper skin care around the stoma site is crucial for preventing skin irritation and infection, which are common issues for patients with new colostomies. While the schedule for colostomy bag replacement (Option B) is important, it is not the priority during initial discharge instructions. Techniques for odor control (Option C) are relevant but secondary to skin care for a new colostomy. Dietary modifications (Option D) may be discussed later but are not the priority at this stage.
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