HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. After receiving report, which client should the nurse assess last?
- A. An older client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing, but no drainage in the Hemovac
- B. An adult client with no postoperative drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain with the bulb compressed
- C. An older client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube
- D. An adult client with rectal tube draining clear pale red liquid drainage
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client with rectal tube drainage of clear pale red liquid is likely to be the least urgent since this is a normal post-operative finding. Clear pale red liquid drainage from a rectal tube is typically not a cause for immediate concern. Choices A, B, and C present clients with concerning signs that may require more immediate assessment and intervention. A client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing may indicate active bleeding, a client with a compressed Jackson-Pratt drain bulb may have inadequate drainage resulting in complications, and a client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube may be experiencing gastrointestinal issues that need prompt evaluation.
2. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, “I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go homeâ€. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
- B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
- C. Let me contact your healthcare provider to discuss the possibility of receiving IV heparin therapy at home
- D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely.' Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents further clot formation, but it does not quickly dissolve existing clots. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the purpose of heparin and the necessity for close monitoring of bleeding risks. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the misunderstanding about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as home administration of IV heparin therapy requires careful consideration and should not be suggested without a thorough assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's misconception about heparin's role in dissolving clots and instead focuses on the client's desire to leave the hospital.
3. An adult client with a broken femur is transferred to the medical-surgical unit to await surgical internal fixation after the application of an external traction device to stabilize the leg. An hour after an opioid analgesic was administered, the client reports muscle spasms and pain at the fracture site. While waiting for the client to be transported to surgery, which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Observe for signs of deep vein thrombosis.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant.
- C. Check the client’s most recent electrolyte values.
- D. Reduce the weight on the traction device.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant. Muscle spasms and pain might be relieved by muscle relaxants, which are appropriate before surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the client is experiencing muscle spasms, not signs of deep vein thrombosis. Choice C is not the most immediate action needed in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because reducing the weight on the traction device would not directly address the muscle spasms and pain reported by the client.
4. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?
- A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
- B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
- C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
- D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.
5. A man calls the hospital and asks to talk with the nurse about his girlfriend who was extremely intoxicated on admission and is receiving services for detoxification. He knows that she is in the facility and asks the nurse about her condition. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. ''I can only report that the client is in satisfactory condition.''
- B. ''Let me give you the telephone number for her room.''
- C. ''I cannot acknowledge if a client is here or not.''
- D. ''I will have the nurse who is working with her call you.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must adhere to confidentiality rules and cannot confirm the presence or condition of the client. Choice A is incorrect because disclosing the client's condition breaches confidentiality. Choice B is wrong as it reveals the client's room number, which is also a breach of confidentiality. Choice D is not the best response as it involves sharing information about the client without verifying the caller's identity or relationship to the client.
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