HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
- B. Blood pH of 7.30
- C. Positive urine ketones
- D. Serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.
2. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed an SSRI. What is the most important information the nurse should provide?
- A. Take the medication as prescribed.
- B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- C. Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.
- D. Understand that improvement may take weeks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important information the nurse should provide to a client prescribed an SSRI for depression is to report any thoughts of self-harm immediately. SSRIs can increase suicidal ideation, especially at the beginning of treatment, so it is crucial to monitor for this and take appropriate actions. While it is important to take the medication as prescribed (Choice A), the immediate need for reporting self-harm ideation takes precedence. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is a general precaution with certain medications but not as critical in this scenario. Understanding that improvement may take weeks (Choice D) is important for managing treatment expectations, but ensuring the client's safety in the context of suicidal ideation is the top priority.
3. The nurse is providing care for a client with a draining postoperative wound infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Encourage increased oral fluids.
- B. Provide high-protein snacks.
- C. Change the wound dressing.
- D. Administer prescribed antibiotics.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering prescribed antibiotics is crucial in treating MRSA infections. MRSA is a type of bacteria that is resistant to many antibiotics, including methicillin. Therefore, prompt administration of the appropriate antibiotics is essential to target the MRSA infection effectively. Encouraging increased oral fluids (Choice A) and providing high-protein snacks (Choice B) may be beneficial for overall recovery but are not the most important actions in treating an MRSA infection. Changing the wound dressing (Choice C) is important for wound care but does not directly address the infection caused by MRSA.
4. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
5. A client reports feeling anxious and having trouble sleeping lately. What non-pharmacological intervention should the nurse suggest first?
- A. Starting an exercise program
- B. Keeping a sleep diary
- C. Practicing relaxation techniques before bed
- D. Using sleep-inducing medications at night
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct non-pharmacological intervention the nurse should suggest first for a client experiencing anxiety and sleep issues is practicing relaxation techniques before bed. Relaxation techniques like deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, or mindfulness meditation can help reduce anxiety levels and promote better sleep naturally. Starting an exercise program (Choice A) can be beneficial but may not provide immediate relief for anxiety and sleep problems. Keeping a sleep diary (Choice B) can help identify patterns but does not directly address anxiety. Using sleep-inducing medications (Choice D) should be considered only after non-pharmacological interventions have been tried.
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