HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023
1. A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?
- A. No complaints of recent episodes of angina
- B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1
- C. No complaints of new onset of nausea or vomiting
- D. Blood pressure changes from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that works centrally to reduce blood pressure. A significant decrease in blood pressure, such as changing from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg, indicates that the medication is effectively managing hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure levels is crucial in assessing the response to clonidine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the therapeutic effect of clonidine in managing hypertension, which is the primary goal of the medication in this scenario.
2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- B. Take this medication with food to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Avoid sunlight while taking this medication.
- D. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed methotrexate is to avoid sunlight while taking this medication. Methotrexate can increase sensitivity to sunlight, leading to skin reactions. It is essential for clients to limit sun exposure and use protective measures like sunscreen and clothing coverage to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding alcohol, taking with food, and reporting signs of infection are not specific instructions related to methotrexate therapy.
3. In the immediate postoperative period, a client is prescribed morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which finding should the PN consider the highest priority in this client?
- A. Monitoring the expiration date of the PCA morphine
- B. Assessing the rate and depth of the client's respirations
- C. Reviewing the type of anesthesia used during the surgery
- D. Observing the client's signs of disorientation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority for the PN is to assess the rate and depth of the client's respirations when a client is receiving morphine via a PCA pump. Respiratory depression is a life-threatening side effect of intravenous morphine administration. If the client's respiratory rate falls below 10 breaths/min, the PCA pump should be stopped, and the healthcare provider must be notified immediately to prevent further complications. Monitoring the expiration date of the PCA morphine is important but not the highest priority compared to assessing respiratory status. Reviewing the type of anesthesia used during the surgery is not directly related to the immediate management of the client receiving morphine via PCA. Observing signs of disorientation is also important but not as critical as assessing respirations for potential respiratory depression.
4. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed carvedilol, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, a potential side effect of this medication. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can slow down the heart rate, so monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any adverse effects on the client's cardiovascular system. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely to occur with carvedilol since it primarily works to reduce heart rate. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperglycemia (Choice D) are not common side effects associated with carvedilol.
5. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.
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