HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI 2023
1. The nurse is leading a 'current events group' with chronic psychiatric clients. One group member states, 'Clara Barton was my nurse during my last hospitalization. She was a very mean nurse and wasn't nice to me.' Which response would be best for the nurse to make?
- A. 'Clara Barton was not your nurse.'
- B. 'What did she do to you that was so mean?'
- C. 'I didn't know that Clara Barton was a nurse.'
- D. 'Clara Barton started the American Red Cross.'
Correct answer: D
Rationale: (D) presents the reality of the situation in relation to American culture. The fact that Clara Barton was a nurse during the Civil War should be addressed on an individual basis. Since this is group therapy, the nurse would be illustrating the concept of universality. (A) is likely to promote defensiveness. (B and C) would support the delusion. Therefore, the most appropriate response is (D) as it provides factual information that can redirect the conversation in a constructive manner.
2. The RN is providing care for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen. Which approach should the RN use when changing this client's dressing?
- A. Provide detailed explanations during wound cleansing.
- B. Perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner.
- C. Ask the client non-threateningly why they cut their abdomen.
- D. Request assistance from another staff member for the dressing change.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner is crucial when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted injuries. This approach helps build trust, reduces feelings of shame or guilt, and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice A is incorrect because while detailed explanations may be necessary, the focus should be on the non-judgmental approach. Choice C is inappropriate as it may come across as accusatory or threatening, potentially worsening the client's emotional state. Choice D is not the best option as the RN should strive to handle the situation themselves in a supportive and empathetic manner.
3. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing a flashback. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Encourage the client to talk about the trauma.
- B. Help the client to focus on the present.
- C. Administer prescribed anti-anxiety medication.
- D. Leave the client alone to work through the flashback.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action is to help the client focus on the present (B), which can reduce the intensity of the flashback. Encouraging discussion of the trauma (A) should be done when the client is not actively experiencing a flashback. While medication (C) may be necessary, it is not the first priority in this situation. Leaving the client alone (D) is not appropriate as they need support to manage the flashback.
4. A client with a leg amputation is upset about his appearance. The LPN/LVN intends to address which most closely associated psychosocial problem?
- A. Inability to be mobile
- B. Isolating self from others
- C. Inability to tolerate activity
- D. Concern about body persona
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with a leg amputation being upset about his appearance is most closely associated with concerns about body image and self-perception. This individual may be worried about how others perceive them, impacting their self-esteem and overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary psychosocial issue in this scenario is related to body image and self-perception, not mobility, social isolation, or activity tolerance.
5. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?
- A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
- B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
- C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
- D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.
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