Free HESI LPN Mental Health Nursing practice for Mental Health HESI 2023 (HESI LPN). Answer 51 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and prog
A nurse working on a mental health unit receives a community call from a person who is tearful and states, 'I just feel so nervous all of the time. I don't know what to do about my problems. I haven't been able to sleep at night and have hardly eaten for the past 3 or 4 days.' The nurse should initiate a referral based on which assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should initiate a referral based on moderate levels of anxiety (B) as the client reports feeling nervous all the time, sleep disturbances, poor appetite, and difficulty solving problems. These symptoms are indicative of significant anxiety levels. The client does not mention symptoms related to altered thought processes (A) or inadequate social support (C). There is insufficient information to suggest altered health maintenance (D) as a reason for referral in this scenario.
A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: White blood cell count. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial to detect this condition early. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver and kidney function tests are important in monitoring other aspects of health, the most critical concern with clozapine therapy is the risk of agranulocytosis, making monitoring white blood cell count the priority.
A client with bipolar disorder is being discharged with a prescription for lithium. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to drink plenty of fluids, especially during hot weather. Maintaining adequate hydration is crucial for clients taking lithium as dehydration can lead to lithium toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because while it is important to monitor sodium intake, staying hydrated is more critical. Choice C is incorrect as lithium is usually recommended to be taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice D is also important but not the most crucial instruction compared to ensuring proper hydration.
A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed valproic acid (Depakote). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Monitoring liver function tests is crucial for clients prescribed valproic acid (Depakote) due to the medication's potential to affect liver function and increase the risk of liver toxicity. While kidney function tests (choice B), thyroid function tests (choice C), and complete blood count (choice D) are important in various clinical scenarios, the priority when administering valproic acid is to monitor liver function to prevent adverse effects associated with this medication.
What is the most important nursing intervention during the first 48 hours for a client with anorexia nervosa admitted to the hospital?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important nursing intervention during the first 48 hours for a client with anorexia nervosa is monitoring vital signs and electrolytes (B) to assess for life-threatening complications. This helps in early detection of any physiological imbalances that could lead to serious consequences. Providing high-calorie, high-protein meals (A) is important for nutritional rehabilitation but comes after ensuring the client's physical stability. Encouraging the client to talk about feelings (C) and observing for signs of purging (D) are relevant aspects of care but are not as critical as monitoring vital signs and electrolytes in the initial phase of treatment.
A client is scheduled to complete a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason the test was prescribed. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. PET scans are primarily used to detect and observe the metabolic activity in various parts of the brain. This helps in diagnosing conditions related to brain function, such as tumors, brain disorders, and overall brain activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because PET scans focus on metabolic activity and functions in the brain rather than solely indicating the presence of tumors, outlining brain structures, or showing biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.
A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The client asks how long it will take for the medication to start working. What is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Buspirone typically takes 2 to 4 weeks to become fully effective. It is essential to inform the client that it may take some time before they notice an improvement. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone does not work immediately. Choice C is also incorrect as buspirone does not provide immediate relief. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a longer duration of treatment than necessary.
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing delusions is to distract the client from the delusions and focus on reality. Encouraging the client to explore the delusions in depth (Choice A) may worsen the delusions. Telling the client that the delusions are not real (Choice B) can lead to confrontation and disbelief. Exploring the underlying meaning of the delusions (Choice C) may not be effective during acute episodes of delusions; hence, distracting the client and refocusing on reality is the most suitable intervention.
Which diet selection by a client who is depressed and taking the MAO inhibitor tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by this medication regimen?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is (D) Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea. This diet selection indicates that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by taking tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) because it does not contain tyramine. Tyramine in foods can interact with MAO inhibitors like Parnate, leading to a hypertensive crisis, which is life-threatening. Choices (A, B, and C) contain foods high in tyramine like cheese, pepperoni, and chocolate, which are contraindicated for clients taking MAO inhibitors.
A client with an eating disorder is planning to attend group meetings with Overeaters Anonymous. The LPN/LVN describes this group to the client, knowing that which finding(s) are characteristic of this form of self-help group? Select one that does not apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Overeaters Anonymous is a self-help group characterized by shared goals among members to address eating disorders. This provides a supportive environment for personal change and growth. Choice B is incorrect as members are not required to remain anonymous in Overeaters Anonymous. Choice C is incorrect as the leader in such self-help groups is usually a member who has experienced similar issues, not necessarily a professional mental health care provider. Choice D is incorrect as attendance at Overeaters Anonymous meetings is voluntary and not prescribed by a healthcare provider.
A client with anorexia nervosa is being treated in an inpatient unit. Which intervention is a priority for the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring the client's weight daily is a priority intervention for a nurse caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. Weight monitoring is crucial in assessing the client's progress and adjusting treatment as necessary to prevent complications such as refeeding syndrome, electrolyte imbalances, and cardiac issues. Encouraging exercise (Choice A) can exacerbate the client's unhealthy relationship with food and body image. Providing liquid supplements (Choice B) is important but may not be the priority over monitoring weight. Allowing the client to choose their own meals (Choice C) may not be suitable initially as they may make unhealthy choices or avoid meals altogether.
A female client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most therapeutic response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acknowledging the client's experience while gently presenting reality can help build trust and provide reassurance without reinforcing the hallucination.
An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.
A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who is withdrawn and refuses to participate in group activities. What is the best nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to attend at least one group session is the best nursing intervention in this scenario. By gently encouraging participation, the nurse can help the client start to engage with others, which may gradually improve their mood and social interaction. Choice B, respecting the client's wish to remain isolated, may further exacerbate the client's withdrawal and depression by reinforcing avoidance behavior. Choice C, arranging for individual therapy sessions, can be beneficial but may not address the specific need for social interaction. Choice D, offering a list of activities to choose from, does not directly address the client's difficulty in participating in group activities and may not provide the necessary support in overcoming social withdrawal.
The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
(D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.
A female client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has been experiencing flashbacks. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with PTSD experiencing flashbacks is to help them stay grounded in the present moment. This technique can reduce the intensity of flashbacks and provide a sense of safety. Encouraging the client to talk about the trauma (Choice A) may exacerbate the symptoms and should be done cautiously under professional guidance. Advising the client to avoid triggers (Choice B) is important, but solely relying on avoidance may not address the underlying issues. Referring the client to group therapy (Choice D) can be beneficial, but in the immediate context of managing flashbacks, grounding techniques are more appropriate.
Which client outcome indicates improvement for a client who is admitted with auditory hallucinations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Tells when voices decrease.' This outcome indicates improvement because it shows that the client is experiencing a reduction in auditory hallucinations. By communicating that the voices are decreasing, it suggests that the client's symptoms are improving and the treatment is effective. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Arguing with the voices (A) indicates ongoing engagement with the hallucinations, which is not a positive outcome. Following what the voices say (C) suggests compliance with the hallucinations, which is not indicative of improvement. Lastly, telling the nurse what the voices say (D) does not necessarily demonstrate a reduction in hallucinations or improvement in the client's condition.
An 86-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease is wandering the busy halls of the extended care facility and asks the nurse, "Where should I stand for the parade?" Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Redirecting the client to a less confusing environment can help reduce anxiety and reorient her to reality.
Unresolved feelings related to loss are most likely to be recognized during which phase of the therapeutic nurse-client relationship?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Unresolved feelings related to loss are often recognized and explored during the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship. This phase involves preparing the client for separation from the nurse, which can trigger unresolved feelings related to loss. During the termination phase, clients may confront their emotions about ending the therapeutic relationship and may also revisit unresolved issues or losses that have surfaced during the course of therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the working phase focuses on active problem-solving and goal achievement, the trusting phase emphasizes establishing rapport and building trust, and the orientation phase involves initial introductions and orientation to the therapeutic process, respectively.
A female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to weigh the client daily at the same time. Daily weights are crucial in monitoring the client's nutritional status and guiding treatment for weight restoration in anorexia nervosa. Monitoring vital signs is important but weighing the client daily takes precedence in this situation. Encouraging group therapy and offering high-calorie snacks are important aspects of treatment but do not take priority over monitoring the client's weight.
A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important teaching point for a client prescribed alprazolam is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abruptly stopping alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medication at the first sign of anxiety is not the key teaching point. Choice C is incorrect because weight gain is not a common side effect of alprazolam. Choice D is incorrect because vivid dreams are not a significant concern compared to the risks of abrupt discontinuation of the medication.
The parents of a nuclear family attending a support group for parents of adolescents are being assessed by the nurse. According to Erikson, these parents who are adapting to middle adulthood should exhibit which characteristic?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Increased self-understanding. According to Erikson's psychosocial development theory, middle adulthood is characterized by generativity, self-reflection, understanding, and acceptance. Middle-aged adults focus on guiding the next generation and finding meaning in their lives. Choices A and C are incorrect because loss of independence and isolation from society are maladaptive behaviors in middle adulthood. While developing and maintaining intimate relationships is important throughout life, the initial development of intimate relationships typically occurs during young adulthood, not middle adulthood.
Which action is most important for the nurse to implement during the initial interview for a client who is admitted to the mental health unit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Establishing rapport is the most important action during the initial interview for a client admitted to the mental health unit. Building rapport helps create a trusting relationship between the nurse and the client, which is essential for effective communication and the success of the therapeutic relationship. Choice B, determining the client's ability to communicate effectively, is important but secondary to establishing rapport. Choice C, reflecting on previous psychiatric interviews, is not as critical during the initial interview with a new client. Choice D, ensuring data collection and recording in a systematic sequence, is important but comes after establishing rapport to foster a therapeutic environment.
A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone (Risperdal). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The statement 'I can stop taking this medication once I feel better' indicates a need for further teaching. Antipsychotic medications, like risperidone, should be taken consistently even when symptoms improve to prevent relapse. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding foods high in tyramine is unrelated to risperidone. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding alcohol is a standard precaution with many medications. Choice D is incorrect because being cautious about drowsiness and avoiding driving is a common safety measure associated with risperidone.
A client in the mental health unit believes that the food is being poisoned. What intervention(s) would be helpful when attempting to encourage the client to eat? Select one that does not apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using open-ended questions and focusing on the client's self-disclosure about food preferences can help build rapport and trust with the client, encouraging them to eat. Identifying the reasons the client has for not wanting to eat can provide insights into their concerns. However, offering opinions about the necessity for adequate nutrition may come across as imposing views on the client, potentially leading to resistance. This approach may not be as effective in encouraging the client to eat as it could create a power dynamic that hinders the therapeutic relationship.
Two days after his last drink, a male alcoholic client becomes agitated and yells at his wife and children, 'Stay away from me!' His vital signs are elevated. What nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'High risk for injury.' The client's agitation, elevated vital signs, and aggressive behavior pose a threat to himself and his family. Addressing the risk for injury is the priority to ensure the safety of all individuals involved. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority in this scenario. 'High risk for social isolation' does not address the immediate physical safety concern. 'Altered parenting' and 'Ineffective individual coping' are important but not as urgent as the risk for injury in this situation.
A female client with obsessive compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization. The afternoon before the procedure, the client begins to keep detailed notes of the nursing care she is receiving and reports her findings to the RN at bedtime. What action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to express her feelings can help address underlying anxieties and may reduce the need for obsessive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because it may come across as confrontational and could escalate the situation. Choice B is not the best initial action as it focuses on the behavior rather than the client's emotions. Choice C is premature without first addressing the client's emotional needs.
What assessment is the priority focus for a client with major depression?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Suicidal ideation. When dealing with a client diagnosed with major depression, assessing for suicidal ideation is of utmost importance. Individuals with major depression have an increased risk of suicide; hence, evaluating their risk for self-harm is crucial. Mood and affect, while important, come secondary to ensuring the safety of the client. Nutritional status and fluid and electrolyte balance are essential components of care but are not the priority when dealing with a client with major depression.
When caring for a client with borderline personality disorder, what is the most effective nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Setting clear and consistent boundaries is essential when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder. This intervention helps provide structure, maintain a therapeutic relationship, and prevent manipulative behaviors. Allowing the client to vent feelings without interruption (Choice B) may not address the underlying issues effectively. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice C) can be beneficial but setting boundaries is more crucial. Providing frequent reassurance and support (Choice D) may inadvertently reinforce maladaptive behaviors instead of promoting growth and independence.
The nurse is caring for a client who received the first-time electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) a half hour ago. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a client receives electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), the nurse's priority should be to monitor vital signs. This is important to ensure the client's physical stability and detect any immediate complications post-procedure. Offering oral fluids, evaluating ECT effectiveness, and encouraging group participation are all important aspects of care but monitoring vital signs takes precedence in the immediate post-ECT period.
What is the most important goal of care for a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who has been taking the benzodiazepine alprazolam (Xanax) long-term? The client will:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The most important goal of care for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) taking alprazolam long-term is to ensure they understand the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication. Abruptly stopping benzodiazepines can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential complications. Choice A is not the most critical goal as the focus should be on the safe continuation of the medication. Choice C is important but not as crucial as preventing abrupt discontinuation. Choice D is beneficial for overall treatment but not the most important goal in this scenario.
When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the client for suicidal ideation. When a client expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, it is crucial to evaluate the risk of self-harm. Encouraging recreational activities (choice A) or suggesting journaling (choice B) may be helpful interventions but assessing for suicidal ideation takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm. Providing positive affirmations (choice D) is not the priority when safety is a concern.
A client with depression is prescribed an SSRI. The client asks, 'Why do I need to take this medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Explaining that the medication may take several weeks to take full effect helps manage the client's expectations and encourages adherence to the prescribed treatment.
A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the LPN/LVN, 'I hear voices telling me to hurt myself.' What is the most appropriate nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation. The client's statement indicating hearing voices telling them to hurt themselves is a serious concern and suggests a risk for self-harm. Referring the client for a psychiatric evaluation is crucial for further assessment and intervention by mental health professionals. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the voices may not address the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and does not address the immediate risk. Choice C is not as comprehensive as referring for a psychiatric evaluation, which is necessary in this situation.
An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Delusions often generate fear and isolation, so the nurse should help the client participate in activities that avoid focusing on the false belief and encourage interaction with others.
What is the priority intervention for a client with major depressive disorder admitted to the psychiatric unit with suicidal ideation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment. When a client with major depressive disorder presents with suicidal ideation, the priority is to assess the level of risk to ensure the client's safety. This assessment helps determine the appropriate interventions, level of care, and monitoring needed. Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings (choice B) is important, but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Providing positive affirmations (choice C) and referring the client to group therapy (choice D) may be beneficial interventions later on but do not address the immediate risk of harm to the client.
The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed an SSRI. The client reports feeling more energy but is still feeling hopeless. What should the nurse be most concerned about?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should be most concerned that the client may act on suicidal thoughts. An increase in energy combined with persistent feelings of hopelessness can indicate a higher risk of suicide. While impulsive behavior can be a concern, the primary worry should be the client's safety regarding suicidal ideation. Side effects of the medication are important to monitor but do not take precedence over the risk of self-harm. Serotonin syndrome is a potential concern with SSRIs, but in this scenario, the client's mental health and safety are the immediate priority.
An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide is option A: 'You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you.' This response is effective as it grounds the client in the present reality while also acknowledging the client's feelings. It shows acceptance of the client's experience without directly challenging the delusional belief, which can help build rapport and trust. Option B focuses on anxiety rather than validating the client's experience or addressing the delusion. Option C suggests an unrelated activity that may not be helpful in this situation. Option D attempts to correct the client's belief, which is not likely to be effective in managing delusional thoughts.
A young adult male client, diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia, believes that the world is trying to poison him. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A client with paranoid schizophrenia has difficulty with trust and developing a trusting relationship with one nurse (B) is likely to be therapeutic for this client. Choice (A) is argumentative and may increase the client's resistance. Choice (C) might be too overwhelming and anxiety-provoking for the client. Choice (D) could increase the client's stress and anxiety, which are counterproductive in managing paranoid ideations.
A client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is pacing the hallway and talking rapidly. What is the best intervention for the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients often exhibit increased activity and may burn a lot of energy. Offering a high-calorie snack and a drink is the best intervention as it helps maintain their nutritional needs while allowing them to continue their activity. Encouraging the client to join a group activity (Choice A) may further stimulate their behavior. Directing the client to a quieter area (Choice C) might not address their energy expenditure. Instructing the client to sit down and relax (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase.
The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has been prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for depression. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The statement 'I can drink alcohol in moderation while taking this medication' indicates a need for further teaching because alcohol consumption can have dangerous interactions with MAOIs. MAOIs can interact with alcohol to cause a hypertensive crisis, which can be life-threatening. Choices A and B are correct statements as avoiding tyramine-rich foods and taking the medication with food can help prevent adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because abruptly stopping an antidepressant medication like an MAOI can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a relapse of depression.
A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.
A client is admitted to a medical nursing unit with a diagnosis of acute blindness. Many tests are performed, and there seems to be no organic reason why this client cannot see. The client became blind after witnessing a hit-and-run car accident, when a family of three was killed. A LPN/LVN suspects that the client may be experiencing a:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client's acute blindness without any organic cause following a traumatic event indicates a case of Conversion Disorder. Conversion Disorder involves the manifestation of physical symptoms due to psychological stressors. Psychosis (choice A) involves a loss of contact with reality, which is not evident here. Repression (choice B) is a defense mechanism that involves unconsciously blocking out thoughts. Dissociative Disorder (choice D) involves disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, or perception, which is not the primary issue in this case.
Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care for a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms? (select one that does not apply.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Place the client on suicide precautions.' When caring for a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms, it is crucial to permit rest periods as needed, speak slowly and simply, and allow the client extra time to complete tasks. These interventions help in promoting the client's comfort and well-being. Placing the client on suicide precautions may not always be necessary and should be based on a thorough assessment of the client's risk of self-harm. Therefore, it is the intervention that does not universally apply to all clients in this situation.
A client with a leg amputation is upset about his appearance. The LPN/LVN intends to address which most closely associated psychosocial problem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A client with a leg amputation being upset about his appearance is most closely associated with concerns about body image and self-perception. This individual may be worried about how others perceive them, impacting their self-esteem and overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary psychosocial issue in this scenario is related to body image and self-perception, not mobility, social isolation, or activity tolerance.
A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.
A client with a history of alcohol dependence tells the nurse that he has been sober for three months but has recently started drinking again. What should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to express his feelings about relapse is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. This approach allows the nurse to address the underlying emotions and factors contributing to the relapse. Choice A, asking the client why he started drinking again, may come across as judgmental and might not be as effective in exploring the client's emotions. Choice B, providing information about support groups, is important but should come after addressing the client's current emotional state. Choice C, discussing the consequences of drinking, may be necessary at some point, but initially, the focus should be on the client's feelings and emotions surrounding the relapse.
A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.
In observing a client who is pacing, agitated, and presenting aggressive gestures, with rapid speech pattern and belligerent affect, what is the immediate priority of care for the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a situation where a client is displaying aggression and agitation, the immediate priority of care for the nurse is to ensure safety for the client and others on the unit. Providing a safe environment and implementing calming measures take precedence over other interventions. Option A is the correct choice as it addresses the crucial need for safety in a potentially volatile situation. Options B, C, and D, although important, do not address the primary concern of ensuring safety for all individuals involved.
A RN is preparing the physical environment to interview a new client for admission to the mental health unit. Which environmental setting facilitates the best outcome of the interview?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Reducing the noise level in the room by turning off the television and radio is the best choice among the options provided. This setting helps create a calm and focused environment, which facilitates better communication and assessment during the interview. Dimming the lights might not be suitable for all clients and could potentially hinder communication. Sitting too close or placing a table between the client and the RN may affect the client's comfort level and openness during the interview.
During an annual physical by the occupational nurse working in a corporate clinic, a male employee tells the nurse that his high-stress job is causing trouble in his personal life. He further explains that he often gets so angry while driving to and from work that he has considered 'getting even' with other drivers. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct responses are C and D. The nurse should acknowledge the employee's feelings of anger and suggest that expressing anger to strangers, like other drivers, could lead to unsafe situations. This response aims to prevent potential confrontations or harm. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't address the specific situation of expressing anger while driving. Choice B is also incorrect as it is vague and doesn't provide practical advice to manage the anger effectively.
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