adult health 1 final exam Adult Health 1 Final Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Final Exam

1. The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client with type 1 diabetes experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. In a hypoglycemic state, the priority is to quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is beneficial after the initial treatment of hypoglycemia to prevent recurrence. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is a more invasive intervention typically done in a hospital setting for severe cases.

3. The nurse is in charge of a Nursing unit in a long-term care facility. Which task is best for the nurse to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is helping with the care of several clients?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because cleaning the perineal area is a task within the scope of practice for unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs) and is crucial for preventing infections. Choice A involves a more complex task that requires a healthcare provider's assessment. Choice C involves a sterile procedure that should be performed by licensed staff. Choice D involves specific care for a client with a catheter that exceeds the UAP's scope of practice.

4. A client presents to the emergency department with symptoms of a myocardial infarction. What should the nurse administer immediately under doctor's orders?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspirin to prevent further blood clotting. Administering aspirin is crucial in the immediate management of a myocardial infarction as it helps prevent further blood clot formation, which is a key component in the treatment and prevention of myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy (Choice B) is often provided, but aspirin takes precedence due to its role in reducing clot formation. Intravenous fluids (Choice C) may be needed but are not the immediate priority in this situation. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is commonly used for chest pain relief in myocardial infarction but is not the first medication to be administered in this scenario.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who has just received a blood transfusion. The client reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chills and back pain are signs of a possible transfusion reaction, which can indicate severe complications like a hemolytic reaction or sepsis. The priority action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further harm to the client. Slowing the rate of the transfusion or administering an antipyretic will not address the underlying cause of the reaction and could potentially worsen the client's condition. Notifying the healthcare provider should be done after ensuring the client's immediate safety by stopping the transfusion.

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