HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. During the assessment of a client who has suffered a stroke, what finding would indicate a complication?
- A. Difficulty swallowing
- B. A slight headache
- C. High blood pressure
- D. Muscle weakness on one side
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) can indicate complications such as aspiration risk, which is common after a stroke due to impaired swallowing reflexes. It poses a serious threat to the client's respiratory system. Options B, C, and D are less likely to indicate immediate complications post-stroke. A slight headache is a common complaint and may not necessarily indicate a complication. High blood pressure is a known risk factor for strokes but may not be an immediate post-stroke complication unless it is severely elevated. Muscle weakness on one side is a common sign of stroke but may not directly indicate a new complication.
2. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. What initial intervention should the nurse prepare to implement?
- A. Administration of IV diuretics
- B. Oxygen therapy
- C. Bed rest
- D. Dietary consultation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with dyspnea and fatigue is oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy can help relieve dyspnea and improve oxygen saturation levels, which are crucial in managing heart failure exacerbations. Administering IV diuretics may be necessary later to address fluid overload, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Bed rest and dietary consultation are important aspects of care for heart failure patients, but in this scenario, oxygen therapy is the priority to improve the client's respiratory status.
3. A client with a history of stroke presents with dysphagia. What is the most important nursing intervention to prevent aspiration?
- A. Encourage the client to drink water between meals
- B. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals
- C. Provide the client with thickened liquids
- D. Allow the client to eat quickly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (sitting upright at a 90-degree angle) helps reduce the risk of aspiration by ensuring that the airway is protected during swallowing. This position facilitates easier swallowing and decreases the likelihood of food or liquids entering the respiratory tract. Encouraging the client to drink water between meals (choice A) does not directly address the risk of aspiration during meals. Providing thickened liquids (choice C) may be necessary for some patients with dysphagia but is not the most important intervention to prevent aspiration. Allowing the client to eat quickly (choice D) without proper positioning and precautions can increase the risk of aspiration.
4. Which intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
- A. Wearing gloves
- B. Using hand sanitizer
- C. Practicing hand hygiene
- D. Disinfecting surfaces
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Practicing hand hygiene is the most effective measure to prevent the spread of infection in healthcare settings. While wearing gloves, using hand sanitizer, and disinfecting surfaces are important infection control measures, they are not as effective as proper hand hygiene. Hand hygiene, including handwashing with soap and water or using alcohol-based hand sanitizers, is crucial in preventing the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, making it the best choice among the options provided. Wearing gloves primarily protects the wearer and is not a substitute for hand hygiene. Using hand sanitizer is helpful but may not be as effective as proper handwashing. Disinfecting surfaces is important but does not address the direct transmission of pathogens through hand contact, which hand hygiene effectively prevents.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?
- A. Before bedtime, at 2000
- B. After breakfast
- C. Before the evening meal
- D. After lunch
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.
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