HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. What initial intervention should the nurse prepare to implement?
- A. Administration of IV diuretics
- B. Oxygen therapy
- C. Bed rest
- D. Dietary consultation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with dyspnea and fatigue is oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy can help relieve dyspnea and improve oxygen saturation levels, which are crucial in managing heart failure exacerbations. Administering IV diuretics may be necessary later to address fluid overload, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Bed rest and dietary consultation are important aspects of care for heart failure patients, but in this scenario, oxygen therapy is the priority to improve the client's respiratory status.
2. A client with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). What is the primary goal of this medication?
- A. To reduce the risk of bleeding.
- B. To lower blood pressure.
- C. To stimulate red blood cell production.
- D. To increase appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate red blood cell production.' Epoetin alfa, such as Epogen, is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. This medication helps increase hemoglobin levels and reduce the need for blood transfusions. Option A, 'To reduce the risk of bleeding,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa does not directly impact bleeding risk. Option B, 'To lower blood pressure,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa is not indicated for blood pressure management. Option D, 'To increase appetite,' is also incorrect as the primary goal of epoetin alfa is related to improving anemia by boosting red blood cell production.
3. The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?
- A. Increase fluid intake.
- B. Follow a low-sodium diet.
- C. Follow a high-protein diet.
- D. Increase sodium intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point?
- A. Take the medication with or without food.
- B. Report any increase in suicidal thoughts.
- C. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
- D. Expect improvement within 24 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching point is to instruct the client to report any increase in suicidal thoughts. This is crucial because SSRIs like fluoxetine can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially at the beginning of treatment. Choice A is corrected to emphasize that fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is unrelated as it pertains more to MAOIs than SSRIs like fluoxetine. Choice D is inaccurate as antidepressants like fluoxetine may take weeks to show significant improvement in symptoms, not within 24 hours.
5. After placement of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC), the nurse receives a report of the X-ray findings indicating that the CVC tip is in the client's superior vena cava. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Remove the catheter and apply direct pressure for 5 minutes.
- B. Initiate intravenous fluids as prescribed.
- C. Secure the catheter using aseptic technique.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Initiating intravenous fluids as prescribed is the appropriate action when the CVC tip is correctly placed in the superior vena cava. Intravenous fluids can now be administered effectively through the central line. Removing the catheter and applying direct pressure is unnecessary and not indicated as the tip is in the correct position. Securing the catheter using aseptic technique is important for preventing infections but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter may delay necessary fluid administration, which is the priority at this time.
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