HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. When taking blood pressure at the brachial artery, the nurse should place the client's arm in which position?
- A. Slightly above the level of the heart
- B. At the level of the heart
- C. At a level of comfort for the client
- D. Below the level of the heart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When taking blood pressure at the brachial artery, it is crucial to place the client's arm at the level of the heart to ensure accurate measurement. Placing the arm above or below the heart level can lead to incorrect readings. Option A, placing the arm slightly above the heart level, would result in falsely lower blood pressure readings as gravity would assist in a lower value. Option C, placing the arm at a level of comfort for the client, may not align with the standardized technique required for accurate blood pressure assessment. Option D, placing the arm below the level of the heart, would likely yield falsely higher blood pressure readings due to increased hydrostatic pressure pushing the blood against gravity.
2. The nurse is in charge of a Nursing unit in a long-term care facility. Which task is best for the nurse to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is helping with the care of several clients?
- A. Measure the amount of a client's residual urine after voiding
- B. Cleanse the perineal area of a client with urinary incontinence
- C. Insert a straight catheter to obtain a urine specimen for culture
- D. Provide catheter care for a client with a suprapubic catheter
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because cleaning the perineal area is a task within the scope of practice for unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs) and is crucial for preventing infections. Choice A involves a more complex task that requires a healthcare provider's assessment. Choice C involves a sterile procedure that should be performed by licensed staff. Choice D involves specific care for a client with a catheter that exceeds the UAP's scope of practice.
3. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?
- A. Decreased sexual libido
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Quickening
- D. Nocturia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.
4. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing wheezing and shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed
- B. Encourage the client to drink fluids
- C. Place the client in an upright position
- D. Assess the client's peak flow rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the priority nursing intervention for a client experiencing wheezing and shortness of breath due to asthma. Bronchodilators help relieve bronchoconstriction, allowing better airflow and improving breathing. Encouraging the client to drink fluids may be beneficial in certain situations, but it is not the priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Placing the client in an upright position, not supine, can facilitate easier breathing by allowing the chest to expand fully. While assessing the client's peak flow rate is important in asthma management, in this acute situation, the priority is to provide immediate relief by administering the bronchodilator.
5. A client with type 1 diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly
- B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack
- C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously
- D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority intervention for a client with type 1 diabetes experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. In a hypoglycemic state, the priority is to quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is beneficial after the initial treatment of hypoglycemia to prevent recurrence. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is a more invasive intervention typically done in a hospital setting for severe cases.
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