adult health 1 final exam Adult Health 1 Final Exam - Nursing Elites
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Final Exam

1. The healthcare provider plans to assess a newborn and check the infant's Moro reflex. What is the healthcare provider evaluating?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Moro reflex is an instinctive response observed in newborns, indicating their neurological integrity. This reflex is evaluated by eliciting a startle response in the infant, involving the sudden extension and abduction of the limbs, followed by their retraction. This assessment helps in determining the proper functioning of the infant's nervous system and brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the evaluation of the Moro reflex. Renal functioning pertains to kidney function, thermoregulation refers to temperature control, and respiratory adequacy involves assessing breathing and oxygenation levels, none of which are evaluated through the Moro reflex.

2. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. This finding may indicate an air leak, which can compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (choice B) may signify that the chest tube is blocked, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition. Tidaling in the water seal chamber (choice C) is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site (choice D) suggests air leakage but is not as urgent as continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.

5. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

Similar Questions

Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
The client is 4 hours post-operative from a cesarean section and complains of gas pain and bloating. What non-pharmacological intervention can the nurse provide?
The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?
When teaching a diabetic client about foot care, what information is most important?
When inserting an indwelling urinary catheter in a female client and urine flows into the tubing, what is the next action?
A client is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron). What symptoms should the nurse recognize as Cushingoid side effects?
ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 50,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access @ $69.99

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 50,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access @ $149.99