HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.
2. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential side effect of escitalopram is drowsiness. Escitalopram is known to cause sedation, so clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness, such as driving, until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are also common side effects of various medications but are not specifically associated with escitalopram.
3. Phenazopyridine is commonly prescribed for clients with urinary tract infections (UTI). Which statement by the practical nurse describes the purpose for the administration of phenazopyridine?
- A. To alter the pH level of the urine
- B. To reduce the frequency of bladder spasms
- C. To alleviate the painful symptoms caused by the UTI
- D. To prevent bacterial replication and resistance development
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine, a urinary analgesic, is utilized to alleviate the pain associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs) like burning, pain, urgency, and frequent voiding. The administration of phenazopyridine can cause the urine to turn a bright red-orange color. It is recommended to take this medication with food to reduce gastric irritation. Phenazopyridine should only be used for a maximum of 2 days when taken alongside an antibacterial agent, which is typically prescribed for about 2 weeks to treat the underlying infection.
4. The practical nurse is assigned a client on digoxin therapy. Which finding is likely to predispose this client to developing digoxin toxicity?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypokalemia predisposes a client on digoxin to digoxin toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, bradycardia, and atrioventricular (AV) dissociation. Therefore, assessment of serum potassium levels and prompt correction of hypokalemia are crucial interventions for clients taking digoxin.
5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Liver toxicity
- B. Skin rash
- C. Hair loss
- D. Abdominal pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver toxicity. Methotrexate is known to cause liver toxicity, making regular monitoring of liver function essential. Monitoring liver function tests helps detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for appropriate interventions to be implemented promptly.
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