HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client prescribed glipizide asked why they had to take their insulin orally. How should the practical nurse respond?
- A. Glipizide is not an oral form of insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present.
- B. Glipizide is an oral form of insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as insulin.
- C. Glipizide is an oral form of insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin.
- D. Glipizide is not an oral form of insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The practical nurse should explain to the client that glipizide is not an oral form of insulin but an oral hypoglycemic agent. Glipizide works by enhancing pancreatic production of insulin when some beta cell function is present. It is not a replacement for insulin but helps the body produce more insulin. Therefore, it can be used when there is still some beta cell function present, unlike insulin which is used when there is a deficiency of endogenous insulin production.
2. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential side effect of escitalopram is drowsiness. Escitalopram is known to cause sedation, so clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness, such as driving, until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are also common side effects of various medications but are not specifically associated with escitalopram.
3. A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?
- A. Avoid using artificial tears because they decrease the efficacy of cyclosporine.
- B. Discontinue the use of both products if transient blurring occurs after administration.
- C. Allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears.
- D. Discontinue the use of cyclosporine and artificial tears when tear production reaches a normal level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Dizziness
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed clonidine, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Clonidine can lead to a decrease in heart rate, thus causing bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed sitagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sitagliptin, a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor used in type 2 diabetes, has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While hypoglycemia is a potential adverse effect of some diabetes medications, it is less common with sitagliptin. Hyperglycemia is the condition being treated and is not an expected adverse effect of sitagliptin.
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