HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with a productive cough and fever has been diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia and is being admitted to the unit from the emergency room. Which intervention should the practical nurse ensure has been done prior to the administration of antibiotics?
- A. Sputum specimen
- B. Set of vital signs
- C. Electrocardiogram
- D. Glucometer check
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before initiating antibiotic therapy in a client with bacterial pneumonia, obtaining a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is essential. This helps identify the specific bacteria causing the infection and guides the selection of the most effective antibiotic treatment.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed insulin glargine. What information should the practical nurse (PN) provide to the client about this medication?
- A. Administer the insulin at mealtimes.
- B. Do not mix this insulin with other insulins.
- C. Shake the vial well before use.
- D. Store the insulin in the freezer.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that should not be mixed with other insulins in the same syringe. Mixing it with other insulins can alter its pharmacokinetics and effectiveness. Insulin glargine is usually administered at the same time each day, often at bedtime, to provide a consistent basal level of insulin over 24 hours.
4. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth and increased thirst
- C. Tremors and polyuria
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.
5. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial because it may lead to non-adherence to the medication. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics, not ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. Hypernatremia (choice C) refers to elevated sodium levels and is not a common side effect of lisinopril. Hyponatremia (choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing the client for a dry cough when taking lisinopril.
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