HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A patient is prescribed sucralfate (Carafate) and asks the nurse what the purpose of taking this medication is. Which is the nurse's best response?
- A. The medication helps reduce bacteria levels in the stomach
- B. The medication helps neutralize gastric acid in the stomach
- C. The medication is used to protect the gastrointestinal mucosa
- D. The medication can reduce the patient's constipation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sucralfate (Carafate) is used to protect the gastrointestinal mucosa by forming a protective barrier over ulcers. This barrier helps prevent stomach acid from further damaging the ulcers and promotes healing. It does not directly reduce bacteria levels, neutralize gastric acid, or have a direct effect on constipation.
2. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Bone marrow suppression
- C. Hair loss
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Adalimumab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Patients on adalimumab should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and malaise, and should promptly report any such symptoms to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Monitoring for infection is crucial to prevent serious complications in patients receiving adalimumab therapy.
3. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Dizziness
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed clonidine, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Clonidine can lead to a decrease in heart rate, thus causing bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect.
4. A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?
- A. Avoid using artificial tears because they decrease the efficacy of cyclosporine.
- B. Discontinue the use of both products if transient blurring occurs after administration.
- C. Allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears.
- D. Discontinue the use of cyclosporine and artificial tears when tear production reaches a normal level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.
5. A client is prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Avoid drinking alcohol
- B. Take with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset
- C. Increase fluid intake
- D. Take medication with grapefruit juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms is to avoid drinking alcohol. Diazepam can cause drowsiness and enhance the effects of alcohol, leading to increased sedation and impaired cognitive function. Clients should be advised to avoid alcohol consumption while taking diazepam to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety.
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